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Utilitarianism is Objectively Valid
Nil Desperandum
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Posted 10/19/09 - 11:55 AM:
Subject: Utilitarianism: Advocatus Diaboli
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First: A rat whose brain has been so wired that its pleasure center will be stimulated when it presses on a bar will press on the bar, continuously, until it dies of starvation. Human beings, I imagine, would be horrified to think of its being "right" to hook up people so that they would experience continuous pleasure to the point of ultimate starvation. But, since we're observing Advocatus Diaboli here, maybe we should consider whether we ought really to be horrified by such a prospect, or whether is simply a failure of our imagination that prevents us from seeing such an arrangement as good. Yes, the rat ultimately dies--but so do we all--and during its life, it experiences *continuous pleasure*. What more could you want? If you say, "Well, I'd like to have a wife, kids, a family"--what is the good in them but for the pleasure they bring you? If you say, "Well, I'd like to have knowledge and power"--what is the good in them but for the pleasure they bring you?

Second: There is a difference between considering what is intrinsically good for a single individual, on one hand, and what is good for all of us jointly, on the other. My welfare--the satisfaction of my needs and desires, as well as the experiencing of what I don't even realize would please me--is certainly what I aim at; and if the freedom to pursue such satisfactions as I see fit is itself a need or desire, then it too is part of what I am at; and thus my happiness is what I aim at. And the satisfaction of your needs and desires, etc., is what you aim at; and so on for each individual. But the real question of ethics is how to handle social interactions. If we're to aim at maximizing joint individual happinesses *because we want to maximize each individual's happiness*, we're going to have to impose constraints on how the greatest overall happiness is achieved so as not to achieve it by harming any particular individual. We might, say, try to maximize average happiness while minimizing the unhappiness that any individual experiences. Translating the aim of happiness for oneself into the aim of happiness for everybody poses a formidable technical problem, if nothing else.

But if it *were* clear how to achieve maximal overall happiness in an unobjectionable way, would that be the most moral thing to do? Even if the way of doing it were to hook us up like those rats and continuously stimulate our pleasure centers (but if the freedom to make our own choices as to how to achieve the satisfaction of our needs and desires were itself desired, then at least the illusion of such freedom might also be needed, and something more Matrix-like than simply the continuous stimulation of the pleasure center might be needed)? Why or why not?

Third: About that "hidden premiss": Yes, one values individual happiness because one values individual consciousness. What is intrinsically valuable is the welfare of thinking, feeling awareness. But how is that really different from valuing happiness?

Fourth: About the problem of authority: This is hardly unique to utilitarianism; it applies, insofar as it applies at all, to any ethical theory on which some actions are prescribed over others. The best people can do is to try to figure out which actions, including which social actions (which means how one votes ethically matters), are most likely to increase overall happiness rather than decrease it. And such "trying to figure out" seems not only feasible, but what we actually do. Our representatives are *supposed* to do what's best for us, aren't they? Isn't that why we complain when they turn out to be in the insurance companies' pocket, or in that of some other special interest group, instead of doing what's best for society at large?

Fifth: As to "slices of agency": Doesn't utilitarianism, at least on Mill's version, recognize varieties of happiness?

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Posted 10/19/09 - 02:34 PM:
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Nil Desperandum wrote:
Doesn't utilitarianism, at least on Mill's version, recognize varieties of happiness?


Yes, Mill recognizes a distinction between higher and lower pleasures - that is an important difference from Bentham's original theory.

"Here the ways of men part: if you wish to strive for peace of soul and pleasure, then believe; if you wish to be a devotee of truth, then inquire..."
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Posted 10/19/09 - 04:02 PM:
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Nil Desperandum wrote:
First: A rat whose brain has been so wired that its pleasure center will be stimulated when it presses on a bar will press on the bar, continuously, until it dies of starvation. Human beings, I imagine, would be horrified to think of its being "right" to hook up people so that they would experience continuous pleasure to the point of ultimate starvation. But, since we're observing Advocatus Diaboli here, maybe we should consider whether we ought really to be horrified by such a prospect, or whether is simply a failure of our imagination that prevents us from seeing such an arrangement as good. Yes, the rat ultimately dies--but so do we all--and during its life, it experiences *continuous pleasure*. What more could you want? If you say, "Well, I'd like to have a wife, kids, a family"--what is the good in them but for the pleasure they bring you? If you say, "Well, I'd like to have knowledge and power"--what is the good in them but for the pleasure they bring you?


So equate the value in everything with the utility is gives you? Why not ask what gives pleasure its value? Your sensations are different than your mind. Which is the value of being human? Do we relish life and existence because we are a set of chemicals bundled together that has the ability to experience tremendous physical stimulation, or is our mind and the value of our rational thought worth more than that? As Philo said, when a human is seduced by pleasure instead of electing to experience pleasure, our mind "becomes a subject instead of a ruler, and a slave instead of a master, and an exile instead of a citizen and a mortal instead of an immortal."

Pleasure may be nature's incentive for us to pursue the values which make us human, like knowledge and wisdom, or may be the incentive to procreate and experience the greatest love possible between two human beings, but it is not the attribute that gives virtue to those experiences. Pleasure doesn't even distinguish us from the carnal indulgences of animals.

Second: There is a difference between considering what is intrinsically good for a single individual, on one hand, and what is good for all of us jointly, on the other. My welfare--the satisfaction of my needs and desires, as well as the experiencing of what I don't even realize would please me--is certainly what I aim at; and if the freedom to pursue such satisfactions as I see fit is itself a need or desire, then it too is part of what I am at; and thus my happiness is what I aim at. And the satisfaction of your needs and desires, etc., is what you aim at; and so on for each individual. But the real question of ethics is how to handle social interactions. If we're to aim at maximizing joint individual happinesses *because we want to maximize each individual's happiness*, we're going to have to impose constraints on how the greatest overall happiness is achieved so as not to achieve it by harming any particular individual. We might, say, try to maximize average happiness while minimizing the unhappiness that any individual experiences. Translating the aim of happiness for oneself into the aim of happiness for everybody poses a formidable technical problem, if nothing else.


There's no logic in your leap from individual happiness to collective happiness. You basically said what's good for each individual is to maximize his own happiness, but ethics is a matter of social interaction (as if you motive in social interaction can't be to maximize your individual happiness), so suddenly you have to sacrifice your own good for everyone's good. For it to be moral to give up my freeom to pursue my own pleasure, you would need to show me that it is in my rational self-interest to do so, and that's still limiting ourselves to a framework that defines pleasure as the absolute postulate of morality. Even granting that absurdity, it is still impossible to reach the universal conclusion.

Ask yourself whether pleasure and pain govern us, or whether they are just conditions of life we react to. Eachperson considers their situation and acts accordingly. Ask yourself why we are on this earth to begin with. Is it to indulge ourselves as much as possible, or could it be that pleasure is just our tool to achieve something more fundamental and more meaningful.

But if it *were* clear how to achieve maximal overall happiness in an unobjectionable way, would that be the most moral thing to do? Even if the way of doing it were to hook us up like those rats and continuously stimulate our pleasure centers (but if the freedom to make our own choices as to how to achieve the satisfaction of our needs and desires were itself desired, then at least the illusion of such freedom might also be needed, and something more Matrix-like than simply the continuous stimulation of the pleasure center might be needed)? Why or why not?


Reality, rationality, and responsibility are burdensome attributes. They are not as pleasurable as ignorant stimulation with no responsibility. Putting everyone in a matrix would no doubt give everyone happiness, especially if everyone had their own matrix without interaction to other people, because then no one could harm anyone else. My desire to be free is meaningless because freedom is not moral - total pleasure is. Of course that is intuitively repugnant and even if it is moral people would never accept a disgusting, perverse morality.

Utilitarianism values the pleasure of a rotter as equal to the pleasure of a hero. But the universe ends as soon as I cease to exist. The universe and everything in it has meaning to me because it is viewed through the realm of my conscious mind. Total aggregate pleasure is only important because a part of that total I hold to be something valuable. I hold other human beings of value due to the virtues they practice, despite that to my conscious mind there is really no difference between them and the basic matter they are made of. Everything that exists only exists due to my ability to perceive of it. Lifeless existence is meaningless until there exists a conscious mind able to give it meaning, form, and explanation.

When I die, all the total aggregate happiness in the universe dies with me. Or at least the form, meaning, and explanation of it dies with me. Without my conscious existence happiness is just interactions in matter that mean nothing to a dead consciousness. So even if utilitarianism were absolutely correct, it would still lead to the conclusion that I ought to always act in a way most beneficial to my OWN happiness. If my own happiness is enhanced by the total happiness of everyone else, that would lead me to perform actions in that regard.


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Posted 10/19/09 - 04:04 PM:
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Apathy Kills wrote:


Yes, Mill recognizes a distinction between higher and lower pleasures - that is an important difference from Bentham's original theory.

What value or virtue distinguishes them?
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Posted 10/19/09 - 09:00 PM:
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Odin wrote:
What value or virtue distinguishes them?


For Mill, higher pleasures are distinguished from lower pleasures in that lower pleasures concern basic, bodily needs while higher pleasures cultivate the faculties of one's mind. So, for example, a lower pleasure would be like... eating chocolate or engaging in a mindless orgy of sex. A higher pleasure would be like... reading Wordsworth poetry or listening to classical music.

How do we know what is a higher pleasure or not? Mill tells us to consult the "verdict of competent judges" on the matter in dispute. If we do not know which is a higher pleasure - doing marijuana or reading Nietzsche - then we consult with someone who has done both and get their input.

If you would like more information, you can read Mill's lovely book online (the beginning of Chapter 2 deals with higher pleasures vs. lower pleasures and this is where you can find what I summarized for you). I find the book very well written and clear in thought. http://www.utilitarianism.com/mill1.htm

"Here the ways of men part: if you wish to strive for peace of soul and pleasure, then believe; if you wish to be a devotee of truth, then inquire..."
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Posted 10/19/09 - 09:59 PM:
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Apathy Kills wrote:


For Mill, higher pleasures are distinguished from lower pleasures in that lower pleasures concern basic, bodily needs while higher pleasures cultivate the faculties of one's mind. So, for example, a lower pleasure would be like... eating chocolate or engaging in a mindless orgy of sex. A higher pleasure would be like... reading Wordsworth poetry or listening to classical music.

How do we know what is a higher pleasure or not? Mill tells us to consult the "verdict of competent judges" on the matter in dispute. If we do not know which is a higher pleasure - doing marijuana or reading Nietzsche - then we consult with someone who has done both and get their input.

If you would like more information, you can read Mill's lovely book online (the beginning of Chapter 2 deals with higher pleasures vs. lower pleasures and this is where you can find what I summarized for you). I find the book very well written and clear in thought. http://www.utilitarianism.com/mill1.htm


I read Utilitarianism for a philosophy class last year. There are a couple problems. First, the 'verdict of competent judges' assumes that the judges are basing their decision on a utilitarian standard. When you ask them which experience is "better," you're not defining what you mean by better. They could judge which is better by some other ethical standard. If you simply asked "which is more pleasurable, lying on the beach all day or working in the lab," and you asked a bunch of scientists, I'd expect that many of them would tell you that the beach is more pleasurable.

The second problem is more important. Why are some pleasures higher quality than others? Identify what makes them more valuable, and you will have a virtue more fundamental than pleasure. Deny that there is a reason some are higher than others, and you can't make the point, because you have no justification for making it.

You seem to be implying that pleasure of the mind is superior to pleasure of the sensations. I know Mill makes this point. But the sensations are a part of the mind. Who says that they are not of equal caliber? The competent judges? What do they know? And the competant judges do not even say that there are or aren't higher and lower pleasures, only Mill says that, and his saying that is simply based off observation and does not follow from utilitarianism. It is simply a dishonest way to incorporate human intuitions into utilitarianism without explaining their nature.
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Posted 10/21/09 - 11:15 AM:
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"Only the Englishman seeks happiness", as Nietzsche said, and I would add that the people who talk about it most are often those who seem to understand it the least.

Maximizing 'happiness', as a first premise, is in any case problematic because in the greater scheme of things, 'happiness' is relative; we always tend towards equilibrium. Sometimes minimizing happiness can lead to maximizing it: inflict pain on someone and merely having that pain removed is bliss, starve a man, then give him a loaf of bread and he'll appreciate it more than than the finest meal when satiated. If you're Christian and Utilitarian, maximising happiness for someone could mean killing them and therefore sending them to eternal heavenly bliss (provided that you were sure they were righteous, their eternal and therefore infinite happiness would necessarily cancel out any negative consequences on earth). A cult of sadists who discovered an abandoned baby might take great pleasure in torturing it to death; if there were enough of them, their 'happiness' could outweigh the babies suffering.

All this nonsense arises when we try to make concepts like happiness jump through ethical hoops for us. Morality is a social construct that is deeply entrenched in our individual psychologies having been built up from a complex combination of evolutionary and environmental pressures; the idea that it can or should be reduced to some kind of equation for maximising 'happiness', a word that carries so many meanings as to make it almost meaningless anyway, is naive in the extreme.

"Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man." Moses (Numbers 31:17-18)

"Do not harm little children" - Satanic Bible. Rule no.9

"And the prize is: Eternal heavenly bliss. Or a peanut. Your choice." - The Divine Game Show Host
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Posted 10/21/09 - 03:08 PM:
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baden511 wrote:
"Only the Englishman seeks happiness", as Nietzsche said, and I would add that the people who talk about it most are often those who seem to understand it the least.

Maximizing 'happiness', as a first premise, is in any case problematic because in the greater scheme of things, 'happiness' is relative; we always tend towards equilibrium. Sometimes minimizing happiness can lead to maximizing it: inflict pain on someone and merely having that pain removed is bliss, starve a man, then give him a loaf of bread and he'll appreciate it more than than the finest meal when satiated. If you're Christian and Utilitarian, maximising happiness for someone could mean killing them and therefore sending them to eternal heavenly bliss (provided that you were sure they were righteous, their eternal and therefore infinite happiness would necessarily cancel out any negative consequences on earth). A cult of sadists who discovered an abandoned baby might take great pleasure in torturing it to death; if there were enough of them, their 'happiness' could outweigh the babies suffering.


I would just add that by utilitarian standards doing what is right isn't based on your knowledge of what outcome might arise, but what outcome does in fact arise.

So if two things were true -

Heaven exists and is the happiest thing ever.

Person A will go to Heaven.

The forced conclusion would be that the moral thing to do is to kill that person. And remember utilitarianism isn't contingent upon proving the outcome. It only matters whether it is true in fact. In fact, heaven is or is not existing, and in fact, person A will or won't go to heaven. Whether you are aware of these things is irrelevant to their truth. So if it is true, then the moral thing to do is to murder everyone who will go to heaven.

I expect the utilitarians will say that it has to increase aggregate happiness in this world. lol its always interesting to see people construct arbitrary additions to cover the holes in their moral theories that only arise because the theories themselves are bs. The worst is the people who actually think there are higher and lower pleasures.
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Posted 10/21/09 - 05:52 PM:
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Odin wrote:
baden511 wrote:
"Only the Englishman seeks happiness", as Nietzsche said, and I would add that the people who talk about it most are often those who seem to understand it the least.

Maximizing 'happiness', as a first premise, is in any case problematic because in the greater scheme of things, 'happiness' is relative; we always tend towards equilibrium. Sometimes minimizing happiness can lead to maximizing it: inflict pain on someone and merely having that pain removed is bliss, starve a man, then give him a loaf of bread and he'll appreciate it more than than the finest meal when satiated. If you're Christian and Utilitarian, maximising happiness for someone could mean killing them and therefore sending them to eternal heavenly bliss (provided that you were sure they were righteous, their eternal and therefore infinite happiness would necessarily cancel out any negative consequences on earth). A cult of sadists who discovered an abandoned baby might take great pleasure in torturing it to death; if there were enough of them, their 'happiness' could outweigh the babies suffering.


I would just add that by utilitarian standards doing what is right isn't based on your knowledge of what outcome might arise, but what outcome does in fact arise.

So if two things were true -

Heaven exists and is the happiest thing ever.

Person A will go to Heaven.

The forced conclusion would be that the moral thing to do is to kill that person. And remember utilitarianism isn't contingent upon proving the outcome. It only matters whether it is true in fact. In fact, heaven is or is not existing, and in fact, person A will or won't go to heaven. Whether you are aware of these things is irrelevant to their truth. So if it is true, then the moral thing to do is to murder everyone who will go to heaven.

I expect the utilitarians will say that it has to increase aggregate happiness in this world. lol its always interesting to see people construct arbitrary additions to cover the holes in their moral theories that only arise because the theories themselves are bs. The worst is the people who actually think there are higher and lower pleasures.

Utilitarianism makes a distinction that Kantian deontologism doesn't make. On Kant's view, the act which actually is commendable and the act which a perfectly rational person would see as commendable are identical. On a utilitarian view, however, the two do not necessarily coincide. The actually moral act might be one which no one, even a perfectly rational person, could see was actually moral, since he could not tell that it would in fact lead to the greatest good for the greatest number. So, in your above scenario, we would say that the killing was in fact the moral thing to do; but, since nobody could foresee that it was the moral thing to do, an actual utilitarian, subject to epistemic limitations preventing him from seeing that the killing was in fact the moral thing to do, wouldn't be likely to praise the killer or to recommend the killing.

While the goal of utilitarian ethical theory, for the act utilitarian, is doing that which actually results in the greatest good for the greatest number, what utilitarianism must recommend individuals do is that which they believe will result in the greatest foreseeable good for the greatest number; and that leads to rule utilitarianism, since various general ethical rules may be seen as generally leading to the greatest good for the greatest number.

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Posted 10/22/09 - 10:40 PM:
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Since this *is* an Advocatus Diaboli thread, let me continue as follows....

First, what gives my pleasure its value is just that it is equivalent to my enjoyment. My enjoyment is, well, enjoyable to me. Fulfilling my needs pleases me; fulfilling my desires pleases me. Whatever else anyone might find valuable, he finds valuable for either the pleasure it gives or for its usefulness, and usefulness is merely intermediate to the bringing of pleasure. I have trouble even understanding the question, "Why is pleasure valuable?" Nothing is valuable independent of sentient entities' finding it valuable; and whatever we find pleasurable, we find valuable. If a sadist finds cruelty to others pleasurable, then it is, to him, valuable. (Naturally, it is not valuable to me.)

Second, while many might find it ignoble (or some such) to be hooked up like a rat and to experience pure pleasure without doing anything, nobody actually is so hooked up and, while hooked up, asked what *he* prefers. We might find that if we experienced that, we would place such high value on it that we would forget all of our high-sounding talk about being the master of his passions instead of their servant. We might find ourselves agreeing that yes, experiencing pure pleasure while doing nothing was in fact a fine way to live.

Those who think of human beings teleologically, as having some intrinsic aim or purpose (and especially some "higher" purpose), will naturally object; but those who see no such intrinsic aim or purpose, but who instead see human beings as doing their best to cope with circumstances not of their making and as doing their best to maximize their welfare and happiness within those circumstances might instead, if their imaginations are functioning, see pure pleasure as a really desirable thing.

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