The term 'Kantian' in political philosophy: Philosophy Forums

The term 'Kantian' in political philosophy

sheps
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Posted 09/27/09 - 03:22 AM: Subject: The term 'Kantian' in political philosophy	#1
Knowing virtually nothing of Kant (a pretty shameful thing to admit round here), can someone please explain to me what is meant when political theorists accuse one another or claim to be 'Kantian.' Is it solely in reference to the catergorical imperative? Essentially, I'd like to know how Kant is relevant in political philosophy and the organisation of society. Though I'm pretty sure he didn't write any treatises on or critiques of politics, he's so important in philosophical history and mentioned so often that I'm sure his ideas were relevant. Help please?
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180 Proof
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Posted 09/27/09 - 05:33 AM:	#2
My guess is that 'Kantian' political science is concerned with 'the transcendental conditions' that make 'justice' 'liberty' 'legitimacy' 'citizenship' etc possible in a modern liberal society. These 'transcendental conditions' consist in, I think, institutional arrangements & the auxiliar functions of a viable civil society. Hannah Arendt, Jürgen Habermas & John Rawls are a few major political 'Kantians' that come to mind. The latter is much more fashionable today (certainly in the U.S.) than the others.
The question isn't "Which explanations do I believe?" but rather "Which explanations do I least disbelieve?" Absence of evidence THAT MUST BE THERE (i.e. implied by any claim, concept, or (its) predicates, that affects changes in/to the world) entails evidence of absence. [What cannot be done?[What cannot be hoped?[What cannot be known?]]]

sheps
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Posted 09/27/09 - 06:24 AM:	#3
180 Proof wrote: My guess is that 'Kantian' political science is concerned with 'the transcendental conditions' that make 'justice' 'liberty' 'legitimacy' 'citizenship' etc possible in a modern liberal society. These 'transcendental conditions' consist in, I think, institutional arrangements & the auxiliar functions of a viable civil society. Hannah Arendt, Jürgen Habermas & John Rawls are a few major political 'Kantians' that come to mind. The latter is much more fashionable today (certainly in the U.S.) than the others. So would you say that it is the belief that things like 'justice' and 'liberty' are eternal ideas that can be said to stay the same in any society? Or, the other words, the liberal belief in 'universal, eternal rights?' Or am I way off the mark with that?
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180 Proof
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Posted 09/30/09 - 02:44 AM:	#4
sheps wrote: So would you say that it is the belief that things like 'justice' and 'liberty' are eternal ideas that can be said to stay the same in any society? Or, the other words, the liberal belief in 'universal, eternal rights?' No. But a Kantian might.
The question isn't "Which explanations do I believe?" but rather "Which explanations do I least disbelieve?" Absence of evidence THAT MUST BE THERE (i.e. implied by any claim, concept, or (its) predicates, that affects changes in/to the world) entails evidence of absence. [What cannot be done?[What cannot be hoped?[What cannot be known?]]]

sheps
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Posted 09/30/09 - 03:16 AM:	#5
180 Proof wrote: No. But a Kantian might. Right, gotcha.
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keda
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Posted 09/30/09 - 05:40 AM:	#6
You could read for instance the science of right (first part of the metaphysics of morals) and perpetual peace both which deal with the political (juridical) aspect of morality.
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sheps
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Posted 09/30/09 - 10:04 AM:	#7
keda wrote: You could read for instance the science of right (first part of the metaphysics of morals) and perpetual peace both which deal with the political (juridical) aspect of morality. Phew. When I get up the nerve to attempt him, I'll try his most politically relevant stuff first, I guess. I'll probably read an introduction to his thought first though, that seems to be the best way with the more complex thinkers.
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