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astaire1
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Posted 05/05/08 - 03:05 AM:
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#201
DeathMonkey,
I don't have easy access to the Internet for the time being. Hopefully that situation will improve over the next week or so. Even so I'd like to try to address this issue of reductionism which is perhaps a semantic issue and perhaps not. Regarding a definition of reductionism would it be worthwhile to contrast it with emergent phenomena? What is your stand on emergent phenomena. I think this is the issue of whether a systems can be "more" than the sum of its parts. A termite colony has an emergent behavior that is "more" than the sum of individual termite behaviors. The ability to build a termite nest is not entirely contained in the termite DNA nor in any individual termite.

Now returning to Dunamis' argument regarding the irreducibility of mind or mentale predicates to brain state or brain activity. The claim is that you cannot achieve laws for intentional descriptions. If so, that would be a strong argument for irreducibilty to a lawful domain (such as brain or neural activity). He provided an example (Jane) where the entire belief system must be included. I'm not yet clear on whether the belief system can be said to be entirely contained within the brain body (certainly it can over brief time periods).

So it seems to me you have a problem in that you cannot prove any of your claims to reducibility (even a 3 body problem is dificult to solve with newtonian mechanics so for QM better to just call it quits). In addition, there is no practical reducibility in sight for phsychology or even biology (as discussed earlier with the extinction example).

So an unprovable in-principle reducibility is only worthwhile discussing if you can put it beside some in practice reducibilities which could presumably be extended at least immediately and hopefully forever extended gradually over time until all has been described causally.


-Astaire

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Posted 05/05/08 - 09:58 AM:
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#202
reincarnated,

One may call a subjective account “conceptual decoration” – but doing so does not avoid the conclusion that such “accounts” are not reducible to accounts of individual constituents. One may also say this conclusion is unimportant, but perhaps we don’t all share this opinion. I also do not agree with the implication that a subjective account is not a "true account" of the part of the world we are trying to describe.

Well, I never actually said anything about "subjective accounts". What I said is that it is only the objective facts that are relevant. Furthermore, I would say that to claim that a particular claim is a "true account of some part of the world", is precisely to say that it truth of the claim is an objective fact.

Now, if what you are saying is that there are objective facts about the world that cannot be described in terms of physics, then I would argue that this is either a claim of dualism, supernaturalism, or both. In either case, of course the reduction would be impossible.

This seems to assert that only objective claims qualify as claims about a part of the world being described. Why so?

Becuase that is what "objective fact" means. An objective fact is a fact about the world, as opposed to an opinion about it, or a person's own subjective interpretation of it.

Why does a subjective claim (such as “the sensation of seeing red” ) not qualify as a part of the world being described?

I do not understand your question. The sensation of seeing red is not a claim at all, much less a subjective claim.

A subjective claim would be something like "ice cream tastes good". This is not an objective fact about the world. It is an opinion which different individuals can agree or disagree with. Now, the claim "I think ice cream tastes good", is an objective claim. Either I do think this, or I do not. The truth value of the claim is not a matter of subjective interpretation or opinion anymore.


DM

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Posted 05/05/08 - 11:16 AM:
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#203
astaire1,

I don't have easy access to the Internet for the time being. Hopefully that situation will improve over the next week or so. Even so I'd like to try to address this issue of reductionism which is perhaps a semantic issue and perhaps not. Regarding a definition of reductionism would it be worthwhile to contrast it with emergent phenomena? What is your stand on emergent phenomena. I think this is the issue of whether a systems can be "more" than the sum of its parts. A termite colony has an emergent behavior that is "more" than the sum of individual termite behaviors. The ability to build a termite nest is not entirely contained in the termite DNA nor in any individual termite.

I think the two issues are closely related. An emergent phenomenon is "more than the sum of its parts" in the sense that the emergent properties are a function not only of the consituent parts, but also of the configuration and/or interaction of those parts. For example, the chemical properties of a sugar molecule are emergent properties. These properties are not properties of the individual particles that make up the molecule, but are a function of the configuration and interaction of those particles. That said, those chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics, because the configuration and interaction of those particles can be described in terms of QM.

In general, I would say that emergent phenomena are reducible to the systems they emerge from. They can be said to be "more than the sum of their parts", but only in the sense that individual descriptions of those parts do not say anything about the configuration or dynamics of those parts. But the system as a whole includes not only the parts, but also the configuration and dynamics.

Now returning to Dunamis' argument regarding the irreducibility of mind or mentale predicates to brain state or brain activity. The claim is that you cannot achieve laws for intentional descriptions. If so, that would be a strong argument for irreducibilty to a lawful domain (such as brain or neural activity). He provided an example (Jane) where the entire belief system must be included. I'm not yet clear on whether the belief system can be said to be entirely contained within the brain body (certainly it can over brief time periods).

I very much disagree with the claim that the entire belief system needs to be included. Again this goes to the point I made that the neuroscience description is not obligated to provide anything more than the objective facts. One needs to include the whole belief system if one wants to preserve all of the aspects of the description that form the context, or "way of thinking about it", but as I have tried to explain several times now, none of that can coherently be considered to be "true facts about the world".

Again, one must keep in mind that what is being described is (or at least is claimed to be), something real. That is, it is an actual part of the world. We can generate any number of models to try to describe that part of the world. In the case of the mind, tome of these are mental predicate models, and those models clearly include much more than just claims about objective facts. But saying that the mind is reducible to neuroscience does not mean that neuroscience can provide all of that extra stuff that aren't actually claims about the world at all. It means that the part of the world that the mental predicate models attempt to describe, can also be described in terms of neuroscience.

So it seems to me you have a problem in that you cannot prove any of your claims to reducibility (even a 3 body problem is dificult to solve with newtonian mechanics so for QM better to just call it quits). In addition, there is no practical reducibility in sight for phsychology or even biology (as discussed earlier with the extinction example).

I think that is kind of looking at it backwards. The real claim is just that there is nothing more actually going on there, than brain activity. This claim is not made to forward some set of monistic metaphysical beliefs. Rather it is just the simplest possible position to hold. Until such time as it is demonstrated that there is something more to it, there is no reason to assume otherwise.

The example of reducing chemistry to QM illustrates this. I doubt you will find more than a handful of scientists (or even philosophers) who take seriously the idea that there is somehow more to chemical properties than just complex interactions of particles, but we cannot prove that there isn't. We don't need to prove that there isn't. What would be the point? If there is something more to it, we will worry about that when the evidence demonstrates it to be the case. Until that time, not only would it serve no purpose to assume there is, but we don't even have any way to formulate such a theory, because we have no evidence to base it on. Anything we could come up with would just be blind speculation.

The situation is the same with respect to the mind. There is no evidence to indicate that there is actually anything more than physical processes involved, so not only would it serve absolutely no purpose to assume that there is, but when we do so, our dualistic theories end up being nothing more than blind speculation, because we have absolutely no evidence to base them on.

In this sense, reducibility is basically just a null-hypothesis. Until such time as we have reason to think that something more is involved, we have no good reason to assume that there is.


DM

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astaire1
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Posted 05/05/08 - 01:19 PM:
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#204
DeathMonkey,

I solved my Internet problem so I can take time to do proper quoting again. smiling face

DeathMonkey wrote:

The real claim is just that there is nothing more actually going on there, than brain activity. This claim is not made to forward some set of monistic metaphysical beliefs. Rather it is just the simplest possible position to hold. Until such time as it is demonstrated that there is something more to it, there is no reason to assume otherwise.

Yes, I am with you 100%. This is precisely what I mean when I say I am a physicalist.

DeathMonkey wrote:
... the idea that there is somehow more to chemical properties than just complex interactions of particles, but we cannot prove that there isn't. We don't need to prove that there isn't. What would be the point? If there is something more to it, we will worry about that when the evidence demonstrates it to be the case. Until that time, not only would it serve no purpose to assume there is, but we don't even have any way to formulate such a theory, because we have no evidence to base it on. Anything we could come up with would just be blind speculation.


Yes, I'm still with you, except that it may not be impossible to "come up with" something that is neither blind speculation nor derivable from QM. For example perhaps there is a holistic phenomenon that defies being broken down to its parts. I'm not sure that this type of situation would necessarily contradict physicalism.

DeathMonkey wrote:

I very much disagree with the claim that the entire belief system needs to be included. Again this goes to the point I made that the neuroscience description is not obligated to provide anything more than the objective facts. One needs to include the whole belief system if one wants to preserve all of the aspects of the description that form the context, or "way of thinking about it", but as I have tried to explain several times now, none of that can coherently be considered to be "true facts about the world".

Here we are not on the same page. You've described your stance on metaphorical vs. non metaphorical severql times, but I don't think its possible for you to have a precise definition of what a metaphor is that will succesfully and reliably do the job you want to do. I gave you an example which you side stepped. You seemed to feel you could securely fall back to QM but I have tried to describe several times that QM is founded on mathematics which derives from language which in turn ultimately depends on metaphors.

So if the meaning of Quantum Mechanics is indeed derived from Davidson's triangulation then your line of argument would perhaps be without a foundation. As I see it, this is the point you haven't been addressing. Instead you seem to be using your defense against dualism (which I agree with but don't see the relevancy to this issue).

In other words, many scientists seem to work under the assumption that truth is foundational (I think this may be why you feel its essential to have a hierarchy of the sciences). My point is that close examination leads to the conclusion that no arguments can ever have any ultimate foundation. Instead arguments are ultimately circular though they can and do make reference to aspects of reality (a world that is shared by the community).

But getting back to your claim above, I was surprised to hear you disagree that the entire belief system is required.

DeathMonkey wrote:

Now, the claim "I think ice cream tastes good", is an objective claim. Either I do think this, or I do not.

Dunamis gave an ice cream example which I think it was supposed to be non convergent. Even if you reject the possibility that the question could have 2 true answers, it still seems to me that you'd need to examine all relevant memories in order to make a final call. Of course, "all relevant memories" ultimately translates to all memories period. Clearly all the memories in your brain are linked together in a complicated web. Each memory being able to trigger multiple memories so that in recursively following up all possible links of any given memory you will rapidly end up traversing the entire web. Your desire to abolish metaphor from descriptions does not seem to be relevant to this aspect of how the brain implements memories (ditto for beliefs).

(I think I just realized that you had misunderstood what was meant by the "entire belief system" claim.)


DeathMonkey wrote:

The situation is the same with respect to the mind. There is no evidence to indicate that there is actually anything more than physical processes involved, so not only would it serve absolutely no purpose to assume that there is, but when we do so, our dualistic theories end up being nothing more than blind speculation, because we have absolutely no evidence to base them on.

In this sense, reducibility is basically just a null-hypothesis. Until such time as we have reason to think that something more is involved, we have no good reason to assume that there is.


In my opinion, you haven't understood the argument. At no time have I ever been defending dualism. At no time have I considered that there is more than physical processes involved (for example triangulation is a physical process).

However, I don't buy the conflation of physicalism and reductionism implied by your final phrase. Remember that though Dennett is a materialist he warns against greedy reductionism. Nonetheless, I am with you regarding physicalism as a null hypothesis.

-Astaire

Edited by astaire1 on 05/05/08 - 01:31 PM

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Posted 05/05/08 - 01:37 PM:
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#205
This may not be an appropriate diagram for Davidson's triangulation but at least it demonstrates that Davidson describes a physical process.


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Posted 05/06/08 - 01:13 AM:
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#206
astaire1,

Yes, I'm still with you, except that it may not be impossible to "come up with" something that is neither blind speculation nor derivable from QM. For example perhaps there is a holistic phenomenon that defies being broken down to its parts.

The issue is not whether it is derivable from QM. The issue is that there is no evidence to base it on. Without first making some observations that are not consistent with QM, we have nothing on which to base any theory that posits something more than QM. Any additional claims such a theory (holistic or otherwise) would make, would necessarily be speculation.

Now, that's not to say that we will never make observations that are not consistent with QM. And if we did make such observations, then it is not inconcievable that some irreducible theory would follow.

I'm not sure that this type of situation would necessarily contradict physicalism.

I don't think it would have to. Nothing about physicalism requires that there be some grand unified theory that everything is reducible to. For that matter, we now know that neither QM nor General Relativity are complete theories. Most physicists are pretty confident that there is a unified field theory that both QM and GR should be reducible to (each as approximations that are valid under a particular range of conditions), but it is possible that there may not be. Frankly, I cannot concieve of such a situation, but my inability to do so is not a proof of impossibility.

Incidentally, it is precisely the fact that we have no observations that are not consistent with both QM and GR, that makes finding a unified theory so difficult. It means that any models we formulate to try to unify them are currently speculative. We need some data from those high-energy-density conditions where we know our current theories will not work.

Here we are not on the same page. You've described your stance on metaphorical vs. non metaphorical severql times, but I don't think its possible for you to have a precise definition of what a metaphor is that will succesfully and reliably do the job you want to do. I gave you an example which you side stepped. You seemed to feel you could securely fall back to QM but I have tried to describe several times that QM is founded on mathematics which derives from language which in turn ultimately depends on metaphors.

As I mentioned previously, the term "metaphor" is not terribly precise. This is why I have tried to rephrase my point in terms of "objective facts" vs "features of the model which are not claimed to be objective facts".

For example, any formalization of QM is expressed in mathematical terms, and as a result makes reference to various mathematical objects as though they were somehow "real". But QM does not actually claim that they are real. So this can be though of as being metaphorical. And of course any time I talk about QM, I am going to be using those metaphors, which seems to be what you are talking about.

But nevertheless, the standard model of QM makes clear predictions about what will observed under various conditions. This is the part that can be taken literally, which is to say that this is the only part that is claimed to be objective fact.

Indeed, the various metaphysical interpretations of QM illustrate this. They each use different metaphors in their descriptions of the world. Some talk about wave-functions. Others talk about non-local hidden variables. Others talk about multiple worlds. But they all agree on the observational predictions. That is the part that can be taken literally. To try to interpret any of that other stuff as being true claims about the world, would be a category mistake.

In other words, many scientists seem to work under the assumption that truth is foundational (I think this may be why you feel its essential to have a hierarchy of the sciences). My point is that close examination leads to the conclusion that no arguments can ever have any ultimate foundation. Instead arguments are ultimately circular though they can and do make reference to aspects of reality (a world that is shared by the community).

My impression is that they do not typically regard truth as being foundational, but rather as it being always in reference to observation. The very nature of observation prevents this from being a foundational model of truth, because it is in the nature of observation that this circularity you refer to comes about.

But getting back to your claim above, I was surprised to hear you disagree that the entire belief system is required.

Dunamis gave an ice cream example which I think it was supposed to be non convergent. Even if you reject the possibility that the question could have 2 true answers, it still seems to me that you'd need to examine all relevant memories in order to make a final call. Of course, "all relevant memories" ultimately translates to all memories period. Clearly all the memories in your brain are linked together in a complicated web. Each memory being able to trigger multiple memories so that in recursively following up all possible links of any given memory you will rapidly end up traversing the entire web. Your desire to abolish metaphor from descriptions does not seem to be relevant to this aspect of how the brain implements memories (ditto for beliefs).

(I think I just realized that you had misunderstood what was meant by the "entire belief system" claim.)

I think so, because I don't think that this is what Dunamis meant by it.

I agree that finding the answer would require examination of all relevant memories, although that would not necessarily have to include all memories. Keep in mind that the folk-psychology notion of a "memory" is not a terribly accurate one to begin with, so thinking about it as though there were some recording in your head of all your experiences, is certain to lead to all sorts of misconceptions.

But I think that when Dunamis talks about "the entire belief system", he is included much more than just information stored in the person's memories. Indeed, that seemed to be his point.

I think I addressed this issue before. As I see it there are two seperate questions. First, what do we specifically mean by the qeustion "Does Bob like ice cream?", and second, does he like it? The first question is one that clearly involves more that just information stored in Bob's brain. But then nobody is claiming that neuroscience can answer that question. And once that question is answered, the answer should no longer depend on anything outside of Bob.

If it does, then it is not actually a question about Bob. If what a person actually means by the question "does Bob like ice cream?" is a question not just about Bob, but about societal norms and how some group of people interpret behavior, then that is not a question about Bob's mind or thought processes. It is a question about society. And nobody is claiming that those questions can be answered by neuroscience, much less that they could be answered by studying Bob's brain.

In my opinion, you haven't understood the argument. At no time have I ever been defending dualism. At no time have I considered that there is more than physical processes involved (for example triangulation is a physical process).

However, I don't buy the conflation of physicalism and reductionism implied by your final phrase. Remember that though Dennett is a materialist he warns against greedy reductionism. Nonetheless, I am with you regarding physicalism as a null hypothesis.

There are different kinds of reductionism. In the sentence in question I was talking about the reducibility of mind to physical processes, which I think is implied by any form of physicalism that is not eliminative. The issue of reducibility of psychology to neuroscience, or even of chemistry to QM, goes beyond this. For example, it could turn out that chemistry is not reducible to QM, without violating physicalism. But chemical processes would still need to be physical processes, which is still a kind of reductionism.


DM

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Posted 05/06/08 - 01:39 AM:
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#207
Death Monkey wrote:
What I said is that it is only the objective facts that are relevant.

My apologies for using sloppy language in my last post. I was unfortunately drawn into the use of numerous additional terms such as "accounts", "facts" and "claims" and then mixed them up. I apologise.


So that I might better understand what you mean here, could you elaborate please?


For example, since you refer explicitly to “objective facts” as being the only facts that are relevant, does this mean that you agree there are such things as subjective facts, but such subjective facts are in your opinion not relevant?


In terms of distinction between objective and subjective facts, could you perhaps give an example of what you consider to be a subjective fact?


The concept of “fact” is usually defined as something that is true, something that actually exists, or something that can be verified according to an established standard of evaluation. Would you agree?

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Posted 05/06/08 - 05:49 AM:
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#208
Death Monkey wrote:

The issue is not whether it is derivable from QM. The issue is that there is no evidence to base it[some alternative model] on.

I don't agree, you seem to be thinking of dualism again which is beside the point. The alternative (possibly holistic) model on the table would be something like Davidson's anomalous monism as described by the web page Dunamis provided. Observations are made and intentional explanations are postulated. These explanations are crucial for predicting the future and making informed decisions. So far it sounds pretty similar to standard science. The problem is that the explanation offered accepts the possibility of non convergence rather than assuming that whatever cannot be proven to converge now can hopefully be shown to converge some time in the future when neuroscience has sufficiently advanced.

Death Monkey wrote:

Without first making some observations that are not consistent with QM, we have nothing on which to base any theory that posits something more than QM.

The problem is that QM doesn't say anything at all about these intentions. This is the future science fantasy that Dunamis was referring to (deriving intention from QM). Certainly intentions do nothing at all to undermine QM. That's why the issue isn't physicalism. Its whether QM can be made to say anything relevant about intentions. Off hand I'd say no (except perhaps a trillion years from now but why speculate). On the other hand, explanations of brain activity do have some relevant things to say. For example, if you destroy the brain, the intention goes away (very physical).

Death Monkey wrote:

Any additional claims such a theory (holistic or otherwise) would make, would necessarily be speculation.

You can call the intentional stance speculation but its all we've got at this point since QM doesn't say anything about how people will act in various circumstances. (Also, all science could be considered "speculative" in the sense that science is explicitly recognized to be provisional).

Death Monkey wrote:
Now, that's not to say that we will never make observations that are not consistent with QM. And if we did make such observations, then it is not inconcievable that some irreducible theory would follow.

The issue is that reducing intentions to QM doesn't do anything useful and may never do anything useful (and there maye be a principle that indicates why it can't be made to say anything useful).

Death Monkey wrote:

I don't think it would have to. Nothing about physicalism requires that there be some grand unified theory that everything is reducible to. For that matter, we now know that neither QM nor General Relativity are complete theories. Most physicists are pretty confident that there is a unified field theory that both QM and GR should be reducible to (each as approximations that are valid under a particular range of conditions), but it is possible that there may not be. Frankly, I cannot concieve of such a situation, but my inability to do so is not a proof of impossibility.

It sounds like you do not wish to conceive it since you must hope that a solution can be found one day (otherwise science would be at an impass).
I know the feeling, but think of it this way. Many eminent scientists have remarked at the marvel that nature can be tamed by mathematical formula. We should be surprised that taming via mathematics has been within the realm of human endeavors thus far.

Death Monkey wrote:

Incidentally, it is precisely the fact that we have no observations that are not consistent with both QM and GR,

That doesn't sound right to me. I'm under the impression that QM and GR are contradictory.

Death Monkey wrote:

that makes finding a unified theory so difficult. It means that any models we formulate to try to unify them are currently speculative. We need some data from those high-energy-density conditions where we know our current theories will not work.

There is already dark matter/energy and black holes in dynamic evolution (as I recall Smolin lists 5 problems of physics that remain unsolved).

Death Monkey wrote:

As I mentioned previously, the term "metaphor" is not terribly precise. This is why I have tried to rephrase my point in terms of "objective facts" vs "features of the model which are not claimed to be objective facts".

I'm not sure that "objective facts" is sufficiently precise. The best I can come up with off hand would be facts that are agreed upon. Referring to the diagram above:

Person 1 sees a rabbit and also sees another person that is seeing the same rabbit while pronouncing the word "bunny". The 2 people agree to call the rabbit "bunny". Thus the production of an objective fact regarding what a rabbit is.

Death Monkey wrote:

For example, any formalization of QM is expressed in mathematical terms, and as a result makes reference to various mathematical objects as though they were somehow "real". But QM does not actually claim that they are real. So this can be though of as being metaphorical. And of course any time I talk about QM, I am going to be using those metaphors, which seems to be what you are talking about.

Yes, and even the concept of distance has no ultimate realness. (It took me a long while to swallow that one). Like all concepts, it is provisional.

Death Monkey wrote:

But nevertheless, the standard model of QM makes clear predictions about what will observed under various conditions. This is the part that can be taken literally,

Ok so far.

Death Monkey wrote:

which is to say that this is the only part that is claimed to be objective fact.

I'm not sure about that. It seems to me that science is about explanations that are assumed true until falsified. That is, we don't assume that the mathematical formulas may have discontinuities everywhere that hasn't been tested. If the formula works for protons and electrons it is assumed it will work for neutrons as well. If that is born out in one case we assume other cases will bear it out as well. (After all, you can't test literally everything experimentally).

Death Monkey wrote:

Indeed, the various metaphysical interpretations of QM illustrate this. They each use different metaphors in their descriptions of the world. Some talk about wave-functions. Others talk about non-local hidden variables. Others talk about multiple worlds. But they all agree on the observational predictions. That is the part that can be taken literally. To try to interpret any of that other stuff as being true claims about the world, would be a category mistake.

I see the point you wish to make but I have been in disagreement with the example you have chosen each time you have mentioned it. As I see it, this example shows that an interpretation is NOT benign and has very definite consequences. For example, it was often assumed that the claim that schroedingers cat was both dead and alive was a superfluous interpretation. As it turns out, it was an essential aspect of QM that the cat could be both dead and alive simultaneously. Denying that is denying that the superposition could be put to any use. As it turns out, the superposed states can indeed be coerced into doing real work in quantum computers.

Death Monkey wrote:

But I think that when Dunamis talks about "the entire belief system", he is included much more than just information stored in the person's memories. Indeed, that seemed to be his point.

His point is that people's beliefs extend out into the shared world. However, I have not been able to clarify his conception of this extension. Indeed, I agree that beliefs are not entirely isolated from the world since there is constant feedback (we discussed the example of handwriting recognition).

However, I have never heard him refer to extension into an alternate universe or any realm other than the shared physical world.

Death Monkey wrote:

I think I addressed this issue before. As I see it there are two seperate questions. First, what do we specifically mean by the qeustion "Does Bob like ice cream?", and second, does he like it? The first question is one that clearly involves more that just information stored in Bob's brain. But then nobody is claiming that neuroscience can answer that question. And once that question is answered, the answer should no longer depend on anything outside of Bob.

But perhaps you are inappropriately forcing all meaning to be limited internally. Perhaps there is an alternative stance that would serve better to scientifically understand these behaviors and thoughts and thus obtain objective facts about them.

Death Monkey wrote:

If it does, then it is not actually a question about Bob. If what a person actually means by the question "does Bob like ice cream?" is a question not just about Bob, but about societal norms and how some group of people interpret behavior, then that is not a question about Bob's mind or thought processes. It is a question about society. And nobody is claiming that those questions can be answered by neuroscience, much less that they could be answered by studying Bob's brain.

Yes I am claiming that society can be studied by neuroscience. But no, its not the type or norms you seem to refer to. Its simply that the meaning of words is derived from the community and most beliefs depend on words and their associated concepts.

It may be that to do physchology properly the question cannot only be about Bob (at least not in all cases). Perhaps, some of Bob's behavior can best be understood by drawing a boundary around him and his twin brother or around his entire family.

My example of the isolation chamber make it clear that Bob can be usefully studied by drawing the boundary where you suggest here. But perhaps there are other cases where the questions are insoluble unless you draw the boundary differently.

-Astaire

Edited by astaire1 on 05/06/08 - 12:25 PM

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Posted 05/07/08 - 12:47 AM:
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#209
DeathMonkey wrote:

I think so, because I don't think that this is what Dunamis meant by it.

I agree that finding the answer would require examination of all relevant memories, although that would not necessarily have to include all memories.


Rather than speculate on what Dunamis meant or even what Davidson meant we can focus on what is implied by the Jane example from the web page Dunamis provided. There is no obvious place to stop and say "ok that's enough beliefs to make the determination".

I agree that we can exclude the belief in Thor from our explanation of how lightning works. That's because we have a satisfying explanation of lightning that specifically excludes Thor so as to improve the usefulness of the explanation. Regarding Janes reason for changing her style of clothes we don't have a satisfying scientific explanation that excludes her beliefs. On the contrary, its generally accepted that a vast number of her beliefs are relevant to the question. My expectation is that all of her beliefs would have at least some vague relevancy. My expectation is that there will be no obvious way to draw the line of which beliefs to include and which to exclude (although it will be obvious that some beliefs are less relevant than others).

DeathMonkey wrote:
An emergent phenomenon is "more than the sum of its parts" in the sense that the emergent properties are a function not only of the consituent parts, but also of the configuration and/or interaction of those parts. For example, the chemical properties of a sugar molecule are emergent properties. These properties are not properties of the individual particles that make up the molecule, but are a function of the configuration and interaction of those particles. That said, those chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics, because the configuration and interaction of those particles can be described in terms of QM.


We don't know for sure that all the properties of a sugar molecule are reducible to QM (although I share your expectation). We can do minimization calculations to predict some properties and configurations of some simple molecules. Many properties (ex: shape) of complex molecules such as proteins (and probably sugar) are beyond what can be predicted via QM calculations.

We know that scientific explanations regarding the structure of macroscopic materials are valid (even if they may sometimes be considered "wrong" or approximate). We see that those scientific principles have proved useful and reliable in building the vast number of cities and roads that have sprung up across the surface of the earth. Not so, with QM indeed many calculations have been made and many experiments have been done but there is also much extrapolation and presumption. When QM begins to a standard part of the electronics industry and when Quantum computers become commonplace the situation will de different. If fact, the inability to surmount the calculation obstacles and achive the goal I've described here, could perhaps provide the clues to observations that might contradict the standard scientific model( relativity, QM, particle physics etc.). (I refer to the possibility of future contradictions to QM that you mentioned).

-Astaire
P.S. I hope its clear that I am NOT AT ALL referring to phenomenal consciousness as reincarnated does. I am talking about ordinary physical processes that are assumed to be supported by the underlying physical laws such as QM and other. But I am referring to how we rationally address the explanations of those ordinary (psychological and intentional) phenomena. I suppose its going to be confusing for you to be discussing with me and reincarnated at the same time.

Edited by astaire1 on 05/07/08 - 02:26 AM

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Posted 05/07/08 - 01:28 AM:
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#210
DM
Death Monkey wrote:
An emergent phenomenon is "more than the sum of its parts" in the sense that the emergent properties are a function not only of the consituent parts, but also of the configuration and/or interaction of those parts. For example, the chemical properties of a sugar molecule are emergent properties. These properties are not properties of the individual particles that make up the molecule, but are a function of the configuration and interaction of those particles. That said, those chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics, because the configuration and interaction of those particles can be described in terms of QM.

We need to be careful that your intended meaning of the phrase “more than the sum of its parts” is not misinterpreted. Many might glibly interpret this to mean that an account of the emergent phenomenon is therefore not reducible to an account of its constituent parts, which would be incorrect.

My intuition is to say that the configuration and interaction of the constituent parts IS itself also part of the “parts”, hence all weakly emergent phenomena ARE indeed the sum of their parts.

Death Monkey wrote:
In general, I would say that emergent phenomena are reducible to the systems they emerge from. They can be said to be "more than the sum of their parts", but only in the sense that individual descriptions of those parts do not say anything about the configuration or dynamics of those parts. But the system as a whole includes not only the parts, but also the configuration and dynamics.

I agree in the case of weakly emergent phenomena, but not in the case of strong emergence (by definition). The interesting question is whether there exist any strongly emergent phenomena.

We also need to be very careful to distinguish between “reducible” in the epistemic sense (ie can be reduced by an observer), and “reducible” in the ontic sense (ie can be reduced in principle, but not necessarily by an observer). Why? Because I believe that phenomenal consciousness is an example of an epistemically irreducible emergent phenomenon, which nevertheless is ontically reducible.

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Posted 05/07/08 - 07:49 AM:
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#211
reincarnated,

For example, since you refer explicitly to “objective facts” as being the only facts that are relevant,

First, just to clarify, I am saying that they are what are relevant to the issue of reducibility.

does this mean that you agree there are such things as subjective facts, but such subjective facts are in your opinion not relevant?

I think that the notion that "subjective" and "objective" are mutually exclusive opposites, is inherently dualistic and incoherent.

I don't think that it is even meaningful to talk about "subjective facts". A fact is either true, or it is not. That implicitely makes it objective. One can have subjective opinions or subjective preferences, but those are not facts.

About the only thing that I can think of that could reasonably be called "an objective fact", would be a fact about somebody's subjective option or preference. For example, it is a fact that I don't like fish, and that is a fact about my subjective preferences. But that is also an objective fact about the world. So ironically the only thing that could be coherently said to be a subjective fact would also be an objective fact. But this makes sense when you consider that "subjective" does not really mean "non-objective", as dualists would try to claim, but rather "private" or "individual to a specific person".

That said, the part of the various models that I am talking about that are not claims of objective facts, are not subjective facts (in any sense of the term) either. They are not facts about the world at all. They are facts about the model. They are the parts of the description that I have been saying should be interpreted metaphorically, rather than as being actual facts about the part of the world that is being described.

And again, when I say that they are not relevant, I mean only that they are not relevant to the issue of reducibility.

The concept of “fact” is usually defined as something that is true, something that actually exists, or something that can be verified according to an established standard of evaluation. Would you agree?

Exactly. This is why I consider the notion of a non-objective fact to be incoherent. Either it is an objective fact, in which case its truth value is not a matter of opinion or preference, or it is not a fact at all.

An emergent phenomenon is "more than the sum of its parts" in the sense that the emergent properties are a function not only of the consituent parts, but also of the configuration and/or interaction of those parts. For example, the chemical properties of a sugar molecule are emergent properties. These properties are not properties of the individual particles that make up the molecule, but are a function of the configuration and interaction of those particles. That said, those chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics, because the configuration and interaction of those particles can be described in terms of QM.

We need to be careful that your intended meaning of the phrase “more than the sum of its parts” is not misinterpreted. Many might glibly interpret this to mean that an account of the emergent phenomenon is therefore not reducible to an account of its constituent parts, which would be incorrect.

Sort of. I agree that one must not interpret "more than the sum of its parts" to mean that there is more to it than the parts that make it up, plus their configuration and interactions. I would not say that it means anything about the reducibility of their accounts, though. The Chemistry account of a sugar modelcule is not reducible to a QM account of it, because the Chemistry model involves what I would call metaphorical components (as do QM accounts of it). For example, the QM account will not say anything about their being covalent bonds between the various atoms. It will describe very complex electromagnetic interactions that, in principle, could be used to predict the same observations that the Chemistry model's description of covalent bonding predicts. But these are very different accounts of the thing being described.

Those predicted observations are the literal facts I have referred to. We can talk about things like "covalent bonds" as though they were actual "things" there "connecting" the atoms together, but this is a highly metaphorical way of talking about the molecules. What should be taken literally is the claims the model makes about how the molecule will behave under various conditions.

My intuition is to say that the configuration and interaction of the constituent parts IS itself also part of the “parts”, hence all weakly emergent phenomena ARE indeed the sum of their parts.

Yes, and I would agree with this. The notion of being able to coherently distinguish between properties that are strictly properties of an object, and properties that are properties of how the object interacts with other objects, is I think a deeply flawed one. In fact, all of the various properties that we tend to intuitively think of as being examples of the former, are in fact examples of the latter.

Nevertheless, when dealing with complex systems made up of simpler components that are often found by themselves (outside of the system), it is natural to draw a distinction between the properties those objects exhibit when they are not in the complex system, and the properties of the system as a whole. After all, the atom is itself a complex system, and the sugar molecule is a component in other complex systems, such as cells. Conceptually it is very useful to model these systems as objects in their own right, and talk about these complex interaction properties as though they were properties of some object that is "the system". The notion of emergent phenomena and reducibility follows directly from this.

I agree in the case of weakly emergent phenomena, but not in the case of strong emergence (by definition). The interesting question is whether there exist any strongly emergent phenomena.

Yes, I agree. As I mentioned before, an implication of Physicalism is that (at least with respect to reducibility to the physical), there are no strongly emergent phenomena.

Of course, that need not apply to reducibility to other things, like QM or neuroscience. For example, there is an entire range of energy densities over which whatever theory correctly describes them, will not be reducible to QM. Similarly, it is concievable that there could be physical processes involved in thinking that are not performed by the brain (some physicalists even believe this), in which case thinking would not be reducible to brain activity.

I don't think any of these examples would really qualify as "strong emergance", though, because the issue here would just be that the theory it cannot be reduced to does not include all of the "parts". I think that a truly strong emergance would require some form of dualism.

We also need to be very careful to distinguish between “reducible” in the epistemic sense (ie can be reduced by an observer), and “reducible” in the ontic sense (ie can be reduced in principle, but not necessarily by an observer). Why? Because I believe that phenomenal consciousness is an example of an epistemically irreducible emergent phenomenon, which nevertheless is ontically reducible.

I am not convinced that reducibility in the ontic sense is really a meaningful concept. I do not see how it can be formulated with claiming the existence of properties that are, in principle, undetectable. And I think that such claims are necessarily category mistakes, as I have mentioned previously in this thread.

That said, I do not think that there are any objective facts about phenomenal consciousness that cannot, in principle, be epistemologically reduced to brain activity. And as I have already pointed out, anything you may attribute to "phenomenal consciousness" that is not an objective fact, cannot coherently be said to be a fact about reality. At best, it is a fact about your conceptual model of the mind, and at worst, it is an incoherent category mistake.


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Posted 05/07/08 - 09:40 AM:
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#212
astaire1

I don't agree, you seem to be thinking of dualism again which is beside the point. The alternative (possibly holistic) model on the table would be something like Davidson's anomalous monism as described by the web page Dunamis provided. Observations are made and intentional explanations are postulated. These explanations are crucial for predicting the future and making informed decisions. So far it sounds pretty similar to standard science. The problem is that the explanation offered accepts the possibility of non convergence rather than assuming that whatever cannot be proven to converge now can hopefully be shown to converge some time in the future when neuroscience has sufficiently advanced.

Nothing about postulating intential explanations inherently contradicts reducibility to neuroscience. What you essentially seem to be saying that we do not have to assume that mental processes are reducible to neuroscience in order to use intentional models. I agree. We don't. Likewise we don't have to assume that things like covalent bonds are reducible to the fundamental interactions of QM in order to use Chemistry.

My point is that we cannot currently construct a model contradicts mental processes being reducible to neuroscience, without that model being speculative, because we have no evidence of there being anything more to those mental processes than just brain activity. We can speculate all we want that there may be more to them than just brain activity, but we cannot specify what implications this has on what we expect to observe. We cannot specify how the world would be different if that was all there was to it. We can imagine all sorts of fanciful scenarios, but again, that is just blind speculation.

If there is something more to mental processes than just brain activity, then we have no idea what it is, or what role it plays in those processes, or how those processes differ from the way they would be if there were not anything more involved. We are left right where we started, completely unable to make any progress towards describing that extra "something" until such time as we actually make some observations that would be incompatible with its simply not being there at all.

So again, we don't have to assume that there is nothing more to it than brain activity. I just don't think that there is, and do not see any point in speculating about it until such time as there is some good reason to think that there is.

The problem is that QM doesn't say anything at all about these intentions. This is the future science fantasy that Dunamis was referring to (deriving intention from QM).

QM does not say anything at all about covalent bonds either. But again, that does not mean that there is anything more to them than just electromagnetic interactions.

Any additional claims such a theory (holistic or otherwise) would make, would necessarily be speculation.

You can call the intentional stance speculation but its all we've got at this point since QM doesn't say anything about how people will act in various circumstances. (Also, all science could be considered "speculative" in the sense that science is explicitly recognized to be provisional).

Again, you appear to have misunderstood what I was saying. Since intentional stances in no way require that there be anything more to mental processes than just brain activity, this is not an example of the "additional claims" I was referring to.

In fact, this just illustrates the problem. If I asked you to present me with two different intentional stance theories: One in which mental processes are assumed to be nothing more than just brain activity, and one in which something more than just brain activity is involved, how would the predictions of those two theories differ?

It seems to me that in order for them to differ in any way that has anything to do with the reducibility issue, one would first have to be able to specify some differences between how they would expect people to behave if there were more to it than brain activity, and how they would expect people to behave if there were not. And any such differences they could specify would purely speculative.

The issue is that reducing intentions to QM doesn't do anything useful and may never do anything useful (and there maye be a principle that indicates why it can't be made to say anything useful).

I am inclined to agree. But reducing them to neuroscience, or as is much more realistic, reducing them to combinations of simpler, more fundamental mental processes, and then further reducing those mental processes to neuroscience, would prove extremely useful. As would even a partial reduction, such as we have with Chemistry to QM, whereby we could do things like specify neuroscience conditions necessary for certain mental processes to be present, or specify how changes in neuroscience conditions are expected to impact mental processes, and so on.

But anyway, I don't really see your point. I don't advocate the reducibility of mental processes to brain activity because I think doing so is useful. I just think that there is probably nothing more to mental processes than brain activity.

It sounds like you do not wish to conceive it since you must hope that a solution can be found one day (otherwise science would be at an impass).

On the contrary, I can concieve of all sorts of things that I don't want to be true. That is irrelevant. Furthermore, if by a "solution" you mean being able to actually perform the analytic reduction, I have absolutely no illusions about this ever actually being done, nor do I think that it never being done poses any sort of problem or impass for science.

I know the feeling, but think of it this way. Many eminent scientists have remarked at the marvel that nature can be tamed by mathematical formula. We should be surprised that taming via mathematics has been within the realm of human endeavors thus far.

I marvel at the fact that we are able to begin to understand the world around us. There is nothing special about mathematics in this respect. Mathematics is just the methodology we found that seems to work for understanding the world. If what we call "mathematics" did not work, and something else did, we would call it "mathematics" instead, and be marvelling that nature can be "tamed" by it.

Anyway, it may very well be that there are phenomena that cannot be understood at all by humans. But I see no reason to assume that there are. And I certainly see no reason to point to some specific phenomenon (such as the mind), and assume that it cannot be. Especially when it is something that we have been making steady progress towards understanding for the past 100 years or more.

That doesn't sound right to me. I'm under the impression that QM and GR are contradictory.

They are. QM describes a world without gravity, and GR describes a classical (that is, non-quantum) world, where objects have well-defined positions, velocities, energies, and so forth.

But it is possible to combine these two theories in an approximate way. Basically we tread gravity as a non-quantized field that is a function of the average energy density over regions (and time intervals) large enough for all quantum effects to effectively average out to zero. As long as energy densities are sufficiently low, this works quite well as an appriximation.

So well, in fact, that we cannot currently detect any difference between what this approximation predicts, and what we actually observe. But we also know that at high enough energy densities, this approximation must fail.

that makes finding a unified theory so difficult. It means that any models we formulate to try to unify them are currently speculative. We need some data from those high-energy-density conditions where we know our current theories will not work.

There is already dark matter/energy and black holes in dynamic evolution (as I recall Smolin lists 5 problems of physics that remain unsolved).

One of the reasons these issues are so contravercial is because the evidence is not yet sufficient for us to even be sure that these things do contradict current GR and QM. To give a simpler example, we can use GR to predict the motion of the planets in our Solar system. If we observe that one of the planets is not behaving as we expected, this could mean that there is a problem with GR, but it could also just mean that there is some object near the planet that we haven't noticed yet.

So while it is possible that further investigation into these kinds of things could yeild the evidence we need to really formulate better theories, that further investigation is still needed. After all, this is precisely why the dark matter hypothesis is currently so speculative. The actual observations is that the Galaxies don't do quite what we think GR says they should. We're pretty sure that the problem is not with GR, because these are not the conditions where we expect it to fail. So instead we hypothesize that it could because there is matter out there that we haven't yet observed. But we don't know yet.

I'm not sure that "objective facts" is sufficiently precise. The best I can come up with off hand would be facts that are agreed upon.

The assumption of there being objective facts is implicit in that concept. After all, what are we agreeing on when we agree on the fact? Are we agreeing that we both share the same opinion? Or are we agreeing on something that we think is true about the world? In fact, the very idea of you agreeing with somebody else implicitely requires that it be an objective fact that there is somebody else for you to agree with.

Referring to the diagram above:

Person 1 sees a rabbit and also sees another person that is seeing the same rabbit while pronouncing the word "bunny". The 2 people agree to call the rabbit "bunny". Thus the production of an objective fact regarding what a rabbit is.

The objective fact is that they have both seen a bunny. The stuff they agree on is intersubjective. Objective facts are facts about the world. We use intersubjective interaction and confirmation to try to work out what we think those objective facts are, and of course we can always be wrong. But there is always the assumption there that there is an objective fact for you to be right or wrong about.

which is to say that this is the only part that is claimed to be objective fact.

I'm not sure about that. It seems to me that science is about explanations that are assumed true until falsified. That is, we don't assume that the mathematical formulas may have discontinuities everywhere that hasn't been tested. If the formula works for protons and electrons it is assumed it will work for neutrons as well. If that is born out in one case we assume other cases will bear it out as well. (After all, you can't test literally everything experimentally).

I don't understand what your objection is. These are all examples of the theory making predictions about what we will observe under various conditions. These predictions are about objective facts. Either the prediction is correct, or it is not. It doesn't matter (for the purposes of my point) whether you actually test them all or not. It doesn't even matter whether all of those predictions are correct or not. The point is that the predictions can be taken literally. If and when the prediction is tested, its outcome will be an objective fact.

Indeed, the various metaphysical interpretations of QM illustrate this. They each use different metaphors in their descriptions of the world. Some talk about wave-functions. Others talk about non-local hidden variables. Others talk about multiple worlds. But they all agree on the observational predictions. That is the part that can be taken literally. To try to interpret any of that other stuff as being true claims about the world, would be a category mistake.

I see the point you wish to make but I have been in disagreement with the example you have chosen each time you have mentioned it. As I see it, this example shows that an interpretation is NOT benign and has very definite consequences. For example, it was often assumed that the claim that schroedingers cat was both dead and alive was a superfluous interpretation. As it turns out, it was an essential aspect of QM that the cat could be both dead and alive simultaneously.

Actually, you are incorrect. Saying that it is alive and dead simultaneously is a specific metaphysical interpretation, and not one that is common to all interpretations of QM. For example, it is not the case in any of the deterministic non-local hidden variable interpretations. Nor is it the case in the Many Worlds interpretation (where in fact there are many cats, some alive and some dead).

Denying that is denying that the superposition could be put to any use. As it turns out, the superposed states can indeed be coerced into doing real work in quantum computers.

Quantum computing is often described in terms of superpositions being "real", but it is even more often described in terms of the Many Worlds interptretation, where as I already mentioned, the cat is not simultaneously alive and dead.

Furthermore, one need not appeal to any of the various interpretations for quantum computing to work. It follows directly from the mathematical model, which ultimately says nothing more than the probabilities of making particular observations under various conditions.

But perhaps you are inappropriately forcing all meaning to be limited internally. Perhaps there is an alternative stance that would serve better to scientifically understand these behaviors and thoughts and thus obtain objective facts about them.

Perhaps there is. That has no relevance to the issue of reducibility. Again, reducibility does not imply that the more fundamental explanation actually be as useful for some specific task. Indeed, often exactly the opposite is the case, which is why we find it useful to bother with concepts like "emergent phenomena" in the first place, even when we know perfectly well that it is reducible.

For example, I program in C++ all the time. When I do this I am describing to the computer what to do in terms of a very high-level set of descriptions. I do so because this "alternative stance" serves far better to formulate and specify the tasks that I want the computer to do, than would trying to write the program in machine language.

Yes I am claiming that society can be studied by neuroscience. But no, its not the type or norms you seem to refer to. Its simply that the meaning of words is derived from the community and most beliefs depend on words and their associated concepts.

But again, the issue of mental phenomena being reducible to brain activity has absolutely nothing to do with the meanings of words. Our beliefs are dependant on our sensory input. That is clear. And all interaction with the external world is via sensory input. That includes any influence society has on our concepts and what we mean by various words.

It may be that to do physchology properly the question cannot only be about Bob (at least not in all cases). Perhaps, some of Bob's behavior can best be understood by drawing a boundary around him and his twin brother or around his entire family.

And if so, then the question is also not just about Bob's mental processes, but instead about the interaction between Bob's mental processes and other various things. Again, this is not relevant to the issue of whether or not those mental processes are reducible to brain activity.

My example of the isolation chamber make it clear that Bob can be usefully studied by drawing the boundary where you suggest here. But perhaps there are other cases where the questions are insoluble unless you draw the boundary differently.

The boundaries relevant to my claim are already drawn. If you are talking about more than just Bob's mental processes, then you are not talking about anything that I am claiming is reducible to Bob's brain activity.

I agree that we can exclude the belief in Thor from our explanation of how lightning works. That's because we have a satisfying explanation of lightning that specifically excludes Thor so as to improve the usefulness of the explanation.

I vehemently disagree. The fact that we have a satisfying explanation for lighting is just the nail in the coffin, so to speak. What you are saying suggest that if we didn't have a satisfying explanation for how lighting works, that we would still need to include Thor in our incomplete explanation of it. But of course this is not the case. Even before we knew anything about electricity, the notion of a thunder god was completely speculative, and added absolutely nothing to our ability to predict its behavior.

Similarly, even though we cannot currently explain how the mind works, we can safely omit from our descriptions any claims of something other than brain activity being involved, because such claims add absolutely nothing to our ability to predict anything.

Regarding Janes reason for changing her style of clothes we don't have a satisfying scientific explanation that excludes her beliefs. On the contrary, its generally accepted that a vast number of her beliefs are relevant to the question.

Nobody is suggesting excluding her beliefs. After all, there is nothing about beliefs that indicates that there is anything more to them than brain activity.

My expectation is that all of her beliefs would have at least some vague relevancy. My expectation is that there will be no obvious way to draw the line of which beliefs to include and which to exclude (although it will be obvious that some beliefs are less relevant than others).

That is completely beside the point. Go ahead and include them all. The point is that when you posit a "belief", you are positing something that exists, and about which there are facts. Now, if it turns out that the facts about this thing that exists are also accurately described by the brain activity model, then we can say that those beliefs are actually brain activity. And that the facts about what we have been calling "beliefs" are actually facts about that brain activity. The fact that your conceptual model of "beliefs" includes various notions that are not facts about anything real, and that these notions are ommitted by the brain activity model, has absolutely no relevance to the issue. Likewise the fact that your conceptual model of "brain activity" also includes notions that are not facts about anything real, and that those notions are not present in the "beliefs" model, is also irrelevant. The point is that both models are being used to describe the same reality, and that the part of reality that the term "beliefs" refers to in one model, is included in the part of reality that the term "brain activity" refers to in the other model.

We don't know for sure that all the properties of a sugar molecule are reducible to QM (although I share your expectation). We can do minimization calculations to predict some properties and configurations of some simple molecules. Many properties (ex: shape) of complex molecules such as proteins (and probably sugar) are beyond what can be predicted via QM calculations.

Exactly. And I would argue that the situation is the same for mental processes. We are able to make all sorts of predictions about mental processes based on neuroscience. And we have learned far more about the mind than we ever could using strictly mental predicate models.

We know that scientific explanations regarding the structure of macroscopic materials are valid (even if they may sometimes be considered "wrong" or approximate). We see that those scientific principles have proved useful and reliable in building the vast number of cities and roads that have sprung up across the surface of the earth. Not so, with QM indeed many calculations have been made and many experiments have been done but there is also much extrapolation and presumption. When QM begins to a standard part of the electronics industry and when Quantum computers become commonplace the situation will de different.

Actually, the electronics industry is all about QM. Solid State Physics is a subfield of Quantum Mechanics, and virtually all modern electronics would be impossible to describe using classical physics.

If fact, the inability to surmount the calculation obstacles and achive the goal I've described here, could perhaps provide the clues to observations that might contradict the standard scientific model( relativity, QM, particle physics etc.). (I refer to the possibility of future contradictions to QM that you mentioned).

Not likely. We know that QM is extremely reliable under the normal conditions we live in. Where we expect to see the discrepencies is at extremely high energy densities. This is why it is so difficult to find the data we need to unify QM and GR.


DM

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Posted 05/07/08 - 11:45 AM:
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#213
DM wrote:

I don't think that it is even meaningful to talk about "subjective facts". A fact is either true, or it is not. That implicitely makes it objective. One can have subjective opinions or subjective preferences, but those are not facts


That's not the kind of subjectivity reincarnated is talking about. He's talking about knowledge only the subject can in principle know through experiences, hence the term "subjective". He's not talking about opinions or personal preferences, which is another meaning of the word "subjective". For example, if Fred can experience more colors than any other human, then Fred's color experiences are known by him only, and hence, his experiences are subjective. Now whether Fred likes the colors that only he experiences is a matter of personal preference. There's nothing incoherent about knowledge that only the subject can have through his/her experiences.


QM does not say anything at all about covalent bonds either. But again, that does not mean that there is anything more to them than just electromagnetic interactions.


That's disputable. It is controversial to attempt to derive accounts of the chemical bond and the shape of molecules from the first principles provided by quantum mechanics. This attempt is very prevalent in the field of quantum chemistry, however: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_chemistry

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Posted 05/08/08 - 12:46 AM:
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DM

Thank you for your very considered response.

Death Monkey wrote:
I don't think that it is even meaningful to talk about "subjective facts". A fact is either true, or it is not. That implicitely makes it objective. One can have subjective opinions or subjective preferences, but those are not facts.

In which case, I would ask why refer to “objective facts”? If I am to accept what you say, then the qualifier “objective” is redundant, and it should be enough simply to refer to facts?

Now, what about so-called qualia? How are we to categorise the facts of phenomenal consciousness (for example, “what it is like for me to see red” )?

Qualia (the feeling of what it is like….) cannot be subjective facts according to your intuition, since you deny the existence of subjective facts, therefore according to your intuition they must be either (objective) facts, or they are simply not facts at all? (Dennett, for example, would presumably claim that qualia simply do not exist, therefore would say they are not facts – although I must admit that his publications confuse me because he seems to vascillate between “qualia do not exist” and “qualia are amenable to scientific investigation” ).

Recall that we agree a fact is “something that is true, or something that actually exists, or something that can be verified according to an established standard of evaluation.” Thus if one denies that qualia are facts, one is in effect saying that qualia are (a) not true, and (b) they do not actually exist, and (c) they cannot be verified according to an established standard of evaluation. Now in the case of qualia I would agree with (c), but NOT with (a) and (b). Therefore it seems to me that qualia pass 2 out of the 3 independently sufficient conditions to qualify as “facts”.

Death Monkey wrote:
But this makes sense when you consider that "subjective" does not really mean "non-objective", as dualists would try to claim, but rather "private" or "individual to a specific person".

And that is just what I am saying qualia are – subjective facts because (a) they pass 2 out of the 3 conditions for facts and (b) they are private and individual to a specific person.

Death Monkey wrote:
As I mentioned before, an implication of Physicalism is that (at least with respect to reducibility to the physical), there are no strongly emergent phenomena.

Agreed, but this is where the physicalist thesis comes up against the limitations of the scientific method. If we define strong emergence as “not possible to give an account of the emergent properties via accounts of the properties of the constituent parts” then we are making an epistemic, and not an ontic, statement. Just because we may be unable to explain how the constituent parts cause the emergent property (epistemic), it does not follow that the constituent parts do not cause the emergent property (ontic). In the case of phenomenal consciousness, I do not believe we will ever be able to explain exactly how the constituent parts of my brain give rise to “my feeling of seeing red”, but this is not evidence against either physicalism or monism, rather it simply illustrates a limitation of the scientific method.

Death Monkey wrote:
I am not convinced that reducibility in the ontic sense is really a meaningful concept. I do not see how it can be formulated with claiming the existence of properties that are, in principle, undetectable.


Let me put it another way, in terms of supervenience. It is possible that phenomenal consciousness supervenes on the physical (a physicalist would claim that indeed it does). This is an ontic statement, and if true it means that phenomenal consciousness is at least in principle ontically reducible to the physical.

However, even if the above is true, it does not follow from this that we can show/explain/account for exactly how phenomenal consciousness supervenes on the physical. This is then an epistemic statement.

It may be true therefore (and I believe it is true) that phenomenal consciousness is epistemically irreducible to the physical, whilst still supervening on the physical. This gives rise to a form of epistemic dualism, but a dualism which is emergent and supervenient on the physical, hence we preserve ontological monism.

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Posted 05/08/08 - 01:02 AM:
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#215
TecnoTut,

I don't think that it is even meaningful to talk about "subjective facts". A fact is either true, or it is not. That implicitely makes it objective. One can have subjective opinions or subjective preferences, but those are not facts

That's not the kind of subjectivity reincarnated is talking about. He's talking about knowledge only the subject can in principle know through experiences, hence the term "subjective". He's not talking about opinions or personal preferences, which is another meaning of the word "subjective".

I'll leave it to Reincarnated to clarify what he was talking about. As for your "subjective knowledge", that is not knowledge of facts, so it is irrelevant to what have been talking about.

For example, if Fred can experience more colors than any other human, then Fred's color experiences are known by him only, and hence, his experiences are subjective. Now whether Fred likes the colors that only he experiences is a matter of personal preference. There's nothing incoherent about knowledge that only the subject can have through his/her experiences.

Case in point here. You are not talking about knowledge of facts here. You are not talking about a fact at all. So this has no relevance to the point I was making. Fred's "subjective knowledge of this special color", in this case, is not knowledge of a fact. It is a mental phenomenon about which there are facts.

QM does not say anything at all about covalent bonds either. But again, that does not mean that there is anything more to them than just electromagnetic interactions.

That's disputable. It is controversial to attempt to derive accounts of the chemical bond and the shape of molecules from the first principles provided by quantum mechanics. This attempt is very prevalent in the field of quantum chemistry, however: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_chemistry

I'm not sure what you mean when you say it is contraversial here. Are you saying that the claim that chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics is contraversial, or that the claim that it is useful (or even possible in practice) to try to do so, is contraversial? Because if you mean the former, then that is simply not true. At least, not within the scientific community.

On the contrary, to suggest that there is something more to chemical properties than just quantum mechanics, would be an extremely contraversial claim to make.


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Posted 05/08/08 - 01:38 AM:
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#216
reincarnated,

I don't think that it is even meaningful to talk about "subjective facts". A fact is either true, or it is not. That implicitely makes it objective. One can have subjective opinions or subjective preferences, but those are not facts.

In which case, I would ask why refer to “objective facts”? If I am to accept what you say, then the qualifier “objective” is redundant, and it should be enough simply to refer to facts?

I used that qualifier to distinguish between facts about the world, and facts about a model, neither of which can be said to be "subjective facts". Of course, many people mistakenly think of facts about a model they have invented as being facts about the world, and then call these "subjective facts". This is exactly the sort of category mistake I have been warning against throughout this thread.

Now, what about so-called qualia? How are we to categorise the facts of phenomenal consciousness (for example, “what it is like for me to see red” )?

That depends on what you mean by "what it is like for me to see red". Most explanations I have seen for what people actually mean by this, do not describe it as being a fact, but rather as being something about which there are facts.

Qualia (the feeling of what it is like….) cannot be subjective facts according to your intuition, since you deny the existence of subjective facts, therefore according to your intuition they must be either (objective) facts, or they are simply not facts at all?

Exactly. They are not facts at all. Your own description above illustrates this. You have not described them as being facts, but rather as being feelings.

(Dennett, for example, would presumably claim that qualia simply do not exist, therefore would say they are not facts – although I must admit that his publications confuse me because he seems to vascillate between “qualia do not exist” and “qualia are amenable to scientific investigation” ).

That is probably because the people who talk about "qualia" never seem to be able to precisely nail down what they mean by the term. I have heard definitions of "qualia" for which I do not think any such thing exists (or even could exist). I have heard definitions for which "qualia" are mental processes, not facts. I have even heard definitions for which "qualia" are objective facts. Most frustratingly of all, I have heard all of the above types of definitions at different times from the same people.

I suspect that the situation is similar for Dennett. Whether or not qualia exist, and what they are if they do, depends entirely on what you mean by the term. And most people who use the term do not seem to have a clear idea themselves of what they mean by it.

Recall that we agree a fact is “something that is true, or something that actually exists, or something that can be verified according to an established standard of evaluation.”

I do not agree with that. A fact is not something that exists. A fact can be about something that exists. Or it can be about an abstract model. As for the verification issue, I would say that this is redundant with the first part. If you cannot specify the conditions under which a claim would or would not be true, then you cannot specify what it means for the claim to be true. Therefore it is meaningless to attempt to assign a truth-value to the claim. The claim therefore cannot possibly be considered to be a "fact".

A fact is a proposition that is true.

Thus if one denies that qualia are facts, one is in effect saying that qualia are (a) not true, and (b) they do not actually exist, and (c) they cannot be verified according to an established standard of evaluation.

That makes no sense. My cat is not a fact, but that does not mean that my cat does not exist!

As I mentioned before, an implication of Physicalism is that (at least with respect to reducibility to the physical), there are no strongly emergent phenomena.

Agreed, but this is where the physicalist thesis comes up against the limitations of the scientific method. If we define strong emergence as “not possible to give an account of the emergent properties via accounts of the properties of the constituent parts” then we are making an epistemic, and not an ontic, statement.

Sure. And physicalism claims that there are not strongly emergent phenomena, according to this definition.

Just because we may be unable to explain how the constituent parts cause the emergent property (epistemic), it does not follow that the constituent parts do not cause the emergent property (ontic). In the case of phenomenal consciousness, I do not believe we will ever be able to explain exactly how the constituent parts of my brain give rise to “my feeling of seeing red”, but this is not evidence against either physicalism or monism, rather it simply illustrates a limitation of the scientific method.

I disagree. If physicalism is true, then any and all phenomena which actually exist should, at least in principle, be epistemologically reducible to physics. Now whether or not it is so prohibitively difficult to actually do so that it will never happen, is another issue entirely.

Property dualism is decidedly not compatible with physicalism. Either phenomenal consciousness exists, and is physical, or it exists and is not physical, or it does not exist. Those three possibilities are exhaustive, and the only one that is compatible with property dualism (number 2), is not compatible with physicalism.

I am not convinced that reducibility in the ontic sense is really a meaningful concept. I do not see how it can be formulated with claiming the existence of properties that are, in principle, undetectable.

Let me put it another way, in terms of supervenience. It is possible that phenomenal consciousness supervenes on the physical (a physicalist would claim that indeed it does). This is an ontic statement, and if true it means that phenomenal consciousness is at least in principle ontically reducible to the physical.

That is only an ontic statement if your definitions of "phenomenal consciousness" and "physical" include the specification that these things have properties that are, in principle, undetectable.

It may be true therefore (and I believe it is true) that phenomenal consciousness is epistemically irreducible to the physical, whilst still supervening on the physical. This gives rise to a form of epistemic dualism, but a dualism which is emergent and supervenient on the physical, hence we preserve ontological monism.

I consider this to be a category mistake. How would the above differ from a situation where it does not supervene on the physical? What properties would be different in that world than in this world? I submit that you cannot possibly specify how it would be different, without making a category mistake.

This is exactly the point I made about undetectable properties. The world in which it is ontically reducible to the physical, and the world in which it is not, can only differ in properties that are indetectable. Otherwise they would also be epistemologically distinguishable, which you have already asserted they are not. So what you have got now are two models, both of which are observationally indistinguishable.

Now in principle this is no problem. The problem comes when you then try to say that one of these models is correct, and the other is wrong. What does that actually mean? Generally speaking, to say that one model is correct and the other model is wrong, is to say that the correct model accurately describes reality, and the wrong model does not. Now when the models differ in a detectable way, this is easy to interpret. There will be some conditions where the wrong model fails to accurately describe our observations. But what does it mean when the difference is an indetectable one?


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Posted 05/08/08 - 09:42 AM:
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Death Monkey wrote:

As for your "subjective knowledge", that is not knowledge of facts, so it is irrelevant to what have been talking about.


Says who? You?


Case in point here. You are not talking about knowledge of facts here. You are not talking about a fact at all. So this has no relevance to the point I was making. Fred's "subjective knowledge of this special color", in this case, is not knowledge of a fact.


Says you, again?


It is a mental phenomenon about which there are facts.


You want to call phenomenal knowledge just a mental phenomenon about which there are facts, then fine. My point is that when reincarnated was talking about experiences, he was not talking about opinions. He was talking about subjective mental phenomenon. You want to argue that "mental phenomon about which there are facts" is not propositional knowledge, fine. My point was that when the word "subjective" was used earlier, it was used to mean subjective experiences, not gut hunches. That's all.


I'm not sure what you mean when you say it is contraversial here. Are you saying that the claim that chemical properties are reducible to quantum mechanics is contraversial, or that the claim that it is useful (or even possible in practice) to try to do so, is contraversial?


What I'm saying is that you said QM doesn't say anything about covalent bonds. But if we can derive the shape of bonds from QM, then QM does say something about bonds and the shapes of molecules. Quantum chemists claim they can do that. Some think the claim that QM does say something about bonds is controversial. But those who practice quantum chemistry don't see much controversy.


Edited by TecnoTut on 05/08/08 - 12:40 PM

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Posted 05/09/08 - 01:30 PM:
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TecnoTut,

As for your "subjective knowledge", that is not knowledge of facts, so it is irrelevant to what have been talking about.

Says who? You?

Yes, says me based on our prior discussions of what you refer to as "subjective knowledge". You have made it quite clear in the past that what you call "subjective knowledge" is not knowledge of facts, which is to say, it is not propositional knowledge.

My point is that when reincarnated was talking about experiences, he was not talking about opinions. He was talking about subjective mental phenomenon. You want to argue that "mental phenomon about which there are facts" is not propositional knowledge, fine. My point was that when the word "subjective" was used earlier, it was used to mean subjective experiences, not gut hunches. That's all.

OK, well, that is still quite irrelevant to the point I was making. Those things have no relevance to the issue of reducibility. If one says (for example) that thinking is reducible to brain activity, then that means that the part of the world that the term "thinking" refers to in mental predicate models is included in the part of the world that the term "brain activity" refers to in the neuroscience model. That is a claim about objective facts.

What I'm saying is that you said QM doesn't say anything about covalent bonds. But if we can derive the shape of bonds from QM, then QM does say something about bonds and the shapes of molecules.

We can't derive the shape of bonds from QM. What we can do is derive what we expect to observe under various conditions from QM, and then use the Chemistry model to determine what shape of bonds would result in the same observations. Even if we have the computational power necessary to completely specify all of the Chemical properties in this way (in other words, to actually reduce Chemistry to QM), QM still doesn't actually directly say anything about covalent bonds, because covalent bonds are not part of the model. A translation from one context to the other is still required.

Quantum chemists claim they can do that.

Quantum chemists may claim to be able to determine bond shapes by using QM, but they do so as I said above: by performing the above translation.

Some think the claim that QM does say something about bonds is controversial. But those who practice quantum chemistry don't see much controversy.

Because it is not contravercial that chemistry is reducible to QM. You clearly misunderstood what I meant when I said that QM does not say anything about covalent bonds. I did not mean that we cannot use QM to draw conclusions about covalent bonds. I meant that QM does not directly say anything about covalent bonds (or any other chemical properties). We can, of course, indirectly draw conclusions about about chemical properties from QM, but we do so by translating between the two models.

In the same way, when we use neuroscience to draw conclusions about the mind, we have to perform a translation. Just as the translation from QM to Chemistry is based on comparisons of predictions of observatons made by the two models, likewise the translation from neuroscience to mind is based on comparisons of predictions of observations made by those two models.


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