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Evidence for God
Who determines what types and amounts are sufficient?

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Evidence for God
aletheist
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Posted 06/12/09 - 06:52 PM:
Subject: Evidence for God
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#1
Non-theists will occasionally offer something like the following (posted in the Debate 12 discussion thread) as an argument for not believing in the traditional God of theism.

J. Random Hacker wrote:
If there is a god, that god knows exactly what evidence it would take for me to believe in it and is powerful enough to provide that evidence. The fact that I remain unconvinced is evidence that either such a god does not exist or does not care what I believe.

Although this approach seems powerful at first, I think that it has several flaws, which will become more apparent if we formalize it.

1. Premise - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then he has the knowledge, capability, and desire to provide exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.
2. Premise - Everyone who has the knowledge, capability, and desire to do something, actually does it.
3. From 1&2 - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then he actually provides exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.
4. Premise - Each and every human who receives exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for him or her to believe something, actually believes it.
5. From 3&4 - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then each and every human actually believes that he exists.
6. Observation - Some humans do not believe that God exists.
7. From 5&6 - An omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God does not exist.

1, 6, and 7 are fairly explicit in the quoted version, and my guess is that 1 (at first) and 6 are relatively uncontroversial as stated here, even among those (like me) who reject 7. 2 through 5 are my additions, which I believe are necessary to get from 1 and 6 to 7 in a logically valid way; i.e., they are implicit in the quoted version. Some may complain that I am creating and attacking a straw man here, so please tell me if you think that there is anything inaccurate or inappropriate about my proposed formalization.

2 is somewhat problematic. For one thing, there are times when we desire to do something that is within our knowledge and capability, but choose to do otherwise. This can perhaps be countered by arguing that in such cases, another desire overrides the one at hand; for example, the desire to be ethical in general keeps me from fulfilling a desire to do some specific unethical thing in a particular situation. However, in order to preserve the argument, it then becomes necessary to qualify the term "desire" in 1 and 2, such that there could not possibly be any other desire of an omnibenevolent God that would take precedent over the desire to provide exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.

4 reflects the fairly common assumption that belief is involuntary, because genuine evidence is cognitively compelling, at least to any rational person. I find this also to be problematic, because it neglects the role of the will. Many sane and competent people adhere to claims that are demonstrably false--not because they are unaware of the evidence, but because they simply refuse to accept it. Theists are often accused of exactly this by non-theists; we supposedly believe in the existence of God because we want it to be true, not because there is any substantive evidence for it. Of course, some theists make the reciprocal claim--that non-theists do not believe in the existence of God because they do not want it to be true, not because the evidence is lacking.

In light of these comments, I would now like to offer three specific objections to the overall argument.
A. Suppose that God knows and provides exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for a given human to believe that he exists; what would prevent that person from deliberately "moving the goalposts" at that point?
B. For most theists, omnipotence means that God can do anything that is possible; but what if some people would never willingly believe that God exists, no matter what kinds and amounts of evidence they received?
C. Most importantly, who has the prerogative to establish exactly what kinds and amounts of evidence are sufficient for a given human to believe that God exists--the human, or God?

It seems to me that the issue is not whether God has provided the kinds and amounts of evidence that meet someone's arbitrary individual standard, but whether that person is conscientiously looking for the kinds and amounts of evidence that God could reasonably be expected to provide in accordance with what are understood to be his divine nature and purposes. Hence, one might not properly seek the same kinds and amounts of evidence for Allah as for YHWH, since their character and priorities are different, according to their alleged revelations. Paul K. Moser is a philosopher who has written extensively about this line of thinking, most notably in his latest book, The Elusive God: Reorienting Religious Epistemology, published by Cambridge University Press (2008).

For example, Christianity teaches that God does not want each and every human merely to acknowledge his existence; he desires a mutually voluntary and permanent love relationship with himself as Lord. It is not just about the intellect, but also the will; really, one's whole being. God is not something to be known (propositionally); he is someone to be known (personally). This places an inevitable limitation on the value and efficacy of so-called "objective" and "scientific" evidence; why should we expect a personal and supernatural God to provide adequate impersonal and natural evidence of his existence? The distant, sterile God of the philosophers is not yet the immanent, intentional God of the Bible. We do not and cannot find him by our own efforts and abilities; rather, he reaches out to us in mercy and grace.

In conclusion, it seems wrongheaded and, frankly, arrogant to insist that humans should be able to dictate to God the manner in which God must reveal himself, and to complain that he is failing to adhere to our demands in this regard. Contrary to what Bertrand Russell stated, there would be no grounds for anyone who faces God in the hereafter to argue that he somehow failed to provide "enough" evidence. To paraphrase Mozart in Amadeus: There is just as much evidence as is required; neither more nor less. I look forward to some spirited feedback!

"Be attentive, Be intelligent, Be reasonable, Be responsible." - Bernard Lonergan (1904-1984)
Incision
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Posted 06/12/09 - 08:20 PM:
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#2
That's a good cast of the argument, and I agree that (2) is false. But it can be replaced with a plausible statement:

(2') Every rational person who has the knowledge, capability, and overriding desire to do something, actually does it.

This seems to me necessarily true.

If we modify (1) to read ". . .he has the knowledge, capability, and overriding desire. . ." then we get a (1') that's still plausible. Then the argument is plausibly sound.

I don't agree that "[m]any sane and competent people adhere to claims that are demonstrably false." If someone believes proof that they're wrong, but still believes that they're right, then they're irrational, and probably rare. YECs are generally ignorant of the Bible and science, and so lacking in reasons to be evolutionists; those who are informed may be irrational, but that doesn't mean they chose their beliefs.

With that, I think the reason why (1') is plausible is stated in the OP: "he desires a mutually voluntary and permanent love relationship with himself as Lord." We can't believe in God unless we believe that he is.
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Posted 06/12/09 - 08:46 PM:
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#3
Hmm. I've never actually heard that argument before. It actually seems far-fetched immediately to me.

In essence, all it would really disprove if it did work is that God isn't omnibenevolent, which seems an unnecessary attribute unless you're doing apologetics for the Christian God. And even then, a major point of Christianity is that you need to take it on faith; evidence is beside the point and convincing someone of anything isn't really on God's agenda.

There are different ways to pick holes in the idea of a creator, and this does not seem to be a very good one.

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TempletonEsquire
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Posted 06/13/09 - 12:15 AM:
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#4
aletheist wrote:

In light of these comments, I would now like to offer three specific objections to the overall argument.
A. Suppose that God knows and provides exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for a given human to believe that he exists; what would prevent that person from deliberately "moving the goalposts" at that point?


Instant death from God.

aletheist wrote:

B. For most theists, omnipotence means that God can do anything that is possible; but what if some people would never willingly believe that God exists, no matter what kinds and amounts of evidence they received?


Then they would receive instant spontaneous death from God.

aletheist wrote:

C. Most importantly, who has the prerogative to establish exactly what kinds and amounts of evidence are sufficient for a given human to believe that God exists--the human, or God?


Since only the human and nature can voice an opinion on that directly to other humans and natural things, then it is ultimately up to humans and nature.


Also, have you considered there is a omnipotent force that wishes to be unknown and that you are only frustrating it by trying to reveal its presence?



Edited by TempletonEsquire on 06/13/09 - 12:29 AM
Fenchurch
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Posted 06/13/09 - 10:24 AM:
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#5
@ aletheist

You've missed the point of the argument entirely and provided a straw man to boot. It doesn't matter that 2 is false because it's not part of the argument. The point was that if God exists, and if it is important to him that I believe that he exists, then -- since he is fully capable of providing sufficient evidence to make me believe -- he should provide such evidence. That such evidence hasn't been provided means that either (1) God doesn't exist, or (2) God doesn't care whether or not I believe he exists.

The argument does not conclude that God doesn't exist, but only that one need not be concerned with his existence. It's main use is as a response to all the bullshit wager-style arguments that you see cropping up all over the internet (none of which are even close to being as well formulated as Pascal's original version, which is itself unconvincing).

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Posted 06/13/09 - 11:44 AM:
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#6
Incision wrote:
(2') Every rational person who has the knowledge, capability, and overriding desire to do something, actually does it.
If we modify (1) to read ". . .he has the knowledge, capability, and overriding desire. . ." then we get a (1') that's still plausible.
I am okay with these adjustments, and even alluded to them in the OP. The problem is that you then have to demonstrate that an omnibenevolent God would necessarily have an overriding desire to provide the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists. This is not self-evident; in particular, it is quite plausible that an omnibenevolent God could have other desires that override this particular one, especially if he is also omniscient.

Incision wrote:
I don't agree that "[m]any sane and competent people adhere to claims that are demonstrably false." If someone believes proof that they're wrong, but still believes that they're right, then they're irrational, and probably rare.
The OP does not qualify that the evidence would be sufficient for each and every rational human; are you proposing this modification, as well? If so, a similar question arises to the one that I posed in the OP: Who has the prerogative to establish what is "rational" for a human--the human, or God?

Incision wrote:
With that, I think the reason why (1') is plausible is stated in the OP: "he desires a mutually voluntary and permanent love relationship with himself as Lord." We can't believe in God unless we believe that he is.
True, but it is also plausible that an omniscient God could determine that the best way to draw someone into such a relationship with himself is not, at least initially, to make his mere existence obvious, or even evident (by the human's arbitrary standards).

"Be attentive, Be intelligent, Be reasonable, Be responsible." - Bernard Lonergan (1904-1984)
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Posted 06/13/09 - 12:12 PM:
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TempletonEsquire wrote:
Instant death from God.
Then they would receive instant spontaneous death from God.
Are you just being facetious, or would you care to offer evidence or arguments to support these responses?

TempletonEsquire wrote:
Since only the human and nature can voice an opinion on that directly to other humans and natural things, then it is ultimately up to humans and nature.
You seem to be presupposing that an omnipotent God, if he exists, cannot communicate with humans; this seems self-contradictory. In any case, the point is that an omniscient God, if he exists, would have the final say on what kinds and amounts of evidence are sufficient for any given human. All humans are fallible, even when it comes to knowing themselves; but an omniscient God, if he exists, would not be.

TempletonEsquire wrote:
Also, have you considered there is a omnipotent force that wishes to be unknown and that you are only frustrating it by trying to reveal its presence?
If a truly omnipotent force exists and wishes to be unknown, then how could I possibly frustrate it? And can a (presumably impersonal) "force" even "wish" anything or experience "frustration"?

"Be attentive, Be intelligent, Be reasonable, Be responsible." - Bernard Lonergan (1904-1984)
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Posted 06/13/09 - 12:30 PM:
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#8
Fenchurch wrote:
The point was that if God exists, and if it is important to him that I believe that he exists, then -- since he is fully capable of providing sufficient evidence to make me believe -- he should provide such evidence.
I realize that this is the argument. The problem is that it may not be supremely important to an omnibenevolent God that you believe merely that he exists. Also, he may not have any interest at all in making you believe; per the OP, perhaps he has an overriding desire for a mutually voluntary relationship.

Fenchurch wrote:
That such evidence hasn't been provided means that either (1) God doesn't exist, or (2) God doesn't care whether or not I believe he exists.
Or (3) God exists, and wants you to believe that he exists, but wants more than this for you (ultimately) and knows that simply giving you exactly the evidence of his mere existence that you currently demand would interfere with that better scenario.

"Be attentive, Be intelligent, Be reasonable, Be responsible." - Bernard Lonergan (1904-1984)
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Posted 06/13/09 - 01:19 PM:
quote post
#9
aletheist wrote:
Non-theists will occasionally offer something like the following (posted in the Debate 12 discussion thread) as an argument for not believing in the traditional God of theism.


Although this approach seems powerful at first, I think that it has several flaws, which will become more apparent if we formalize it.

1. Premise - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then he has the knowledge, capability, and desire to provide exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.
2. Premise - Everyone who has the knowledge, capability, and desire to do something, actually does it.
3. From 1&2 - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then he actually provides exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.
4. Premise - Each and every human who receives exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for him or her to believe something, actually believes it.
5. From 3&4 - If an omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God exists, then each and every human actually believes that he exists.
6. Observation - Some humans do not believe that God exists.
7. From 5&6 - An omniscient, omnipotent, and omnibenevolent God does not exist.

1, 6, and 7 are fairly explicit in the quoted version, and my guess is that 1 (at first) and 6 are relatively uncontroversial as stated here, even among those (like me) who reject 7. 2 through 5 are my additions, which I believe are necessary to get from 1 and 6 to 7 in a logically valid way; i.e., they are implicit in the quoted version. Some may complain that I am creating and attacking a straw man here, so please tell me if you think that there is anything inaccurate or inappropriate about my proposed formalization.

2 is somewhat problematic. For one thing, there are times when we desire to do something that is within our knowledge and capability, but choose to do otherwise. This can perhaps be countered by arguing that in such cases, another desire overrides the one at hand; for example, the desire to be ethical in general keeps me from fulfilling a desire to do some specific unethical thing in a particular situation. However, in order to preserve the argument, it then becomes necessary to qualify the term "desire" in 1 and 2, such that there could not possibly be any other desire of an omnibenevolent God that would take precedent over the desire to provide exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for each and every human to believe that he exists.

4 reflects the fairly common assumption that belief is involuntary, because genuine evidence is cognitively compelling, at least to any rational person. I find this also to be problematic, because it neglects the role of the will. Many sane and competent people adhere to claims that are demonstrably false--not because they are unaware of the evidence, but because they simply refuse to accept it. Theists are often accused of exactly this by non-theists; we supposedly believe in the existence of God because we want it to be true, not because there is any substantive evidence for it. Of course, some theists make the reciprocal claim--that non-theists do not believe in the existence of God because they do not want it to be true, not because the evidence is lacking.

In light of these comments, I would now like to offer three specific objections to the overall argument.
A. Suppose that God knows and provides exactly the kinds and amounts of evidence that would be sufficient for a given human to believe that he exists; what would prevent that person from deliberately "moving the goalposts" at that point?
B. For most theists, omnipotence means that God can do anything that is possible; but what if some people would never willingly believe that God exists, no matter what kinds and amounts of evidence they received?
C. Most importantly, who has the prerogative to establish exactly what kinds and amounts of evidence are sufficient for a given human to believe that God exists--the human, or God?

It seems to me that the issue is not whether God has provided the kinds and amounts of evidence that meet someone's arbitrary individual standard, but whether that person is conscientiously looking for the kinds and amounts of evidence that God could reasonably be expected to provide in accordance with what are understood to be his divine nature and purposes. Hence, one might not properly seek the same kinds and amounts of evidence for Allah as for YHWH, since their character and priorities are different, according to their alleged revelations. Paul K. Moser is a philosopher who has written extensively about this line of thinking, most notably in his latest book, The Elusive God: Reorienting Religious Epistemology, published by Cambridge University Press (2008).

For example, Christianity teaches that God does not want each and every human merely to acknowledge his existence; he desires a mutually voluntary and permanent love relationship with himself as Lord. It is not just about the intellect, but also the will; really, one's whole being. God is not something to be known (propositionally); he is someone to be known (personally). This places an inevitable limitation on the value and efficacy of so-called "objective" and "scientific" evidence; why should we expect a personal and supernatural God to provide adequate impersonal and natural evidence of his existence? The distant, sterile God of the philosophers is not yet the immanent, intentional God of the Bible. We do not and cannot find him by our own efforts and abilities; rather, he reaches out to us in mercy and grace.

In conclusion, it seems wrongheaded and, frankly, arrogant to insist that humans should be able to dictate to God the manner in which God must reveal himself, and to complain that he is failing to adhere to our demands in this regard. Contrary to what Bertrand Russell stated, there would be no grounds for anyone who faces God in the hereafter to argue that he somehow failed to provide "enough" evidence. To paraphrase Mozart in Amadeus: There is just as much evidence as is required; neither more nor less. I look forward to some spirited feedback!


When I became a christian what happened was this "voice of god" in my mind said to me, there is no proof either way, the only way is to simply choose to believe. Why did I choose to believe? Because in my reasoning the teachings that Jesus synthesized into 2 commandments 1, Love truth and righteousness above all else and 2 Love others, were what I already believed. Is there anyone here who sees anything wrong in those 2 commandments, because to me they represent God.
aletheist
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Posted 06/13/09 - 01:55 PM:
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#10
Dangerous Curves wrote:
And even then, a major point of Christianity is that you need to take it on faith; evidence is beside the point and convincing someone of anything isn't really on God's agenda.
This is a common misconception that has been addressed in other threads. For Christians, faith is not believing a proposition in the absence of evidence; it is trusting a person (God) who has revealed himself on his own terms.

"Be attentive, Be intelligent, Be reasonable, Be responsible." - Bernard Lonergan (1904-1984)
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