Philosophy Forums


Debate 10 Discussion: Whether the masses should rule themselves

PrintPrint


Page: 1 2

Debate 10 Discussion: Whether the masses should rule themselves
Paul
Tenured Poster
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Mar 10, 2002

Total Topics: 465
Total Posts: 12173
Posted 02/10/07 - 12:21 PM:
Subject: Debate 10 Discussion: Whether the masses should rule themselves
quote post
#1
In this debate wander argues that the masses should rule themselves, while Mr.Anonymous argues that they should be ruled over by an elite. Read the debate over here.
coolazice
Assistant Professor
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Sep 05, 2006

Total Topics: 25
Total Posts: 270
Posted 02/12/07 - 10:08 PM:
quote post
#2
Mr.Anonymous wrote:

First point: Throught mankind's history, society has always believed that in order to be more modern, more civilized, we must inherently be more tolerant, more understanding. The elite have more and more, with each new generation, been looked at as the enemy of this, the source of all oppression and intolerance, the enemy of all that is good.


Seems to be obviously false. Was Ancient Egypt interested in being more tolerant and understanding in order to be civilized? Was Medieveal Europe? Nazi Germany?

Mr.Anonymous wrote:
Second point: So far, humanity has had absolutely no luck creating a society without the High. The earliest human societies, though having very little in the way of an elite class still had clan leaders, who were the high at the time. And although they may have often changed if someone could sieze power from the current leader, but the clan leaders would often have the most access to wealth, food, and women. In the Soviet Union, one of the first communist nations, we had the Communist Party. The Party advocated equality and improved life-style for the proletariat, but in reality it was always amassing wealth and luxury that would be fit for an industrial middle class capitalist for its highest members. In the French Republic of Virtue, we had Emperor Napoleon Bonaparte and his wife. While Napoleon advocated republican virtues and overthrew monarchs, he himself was a monarch who amassed great wealth for himself and established various dukes in France's dependent states. In Rome, even before the ascention of Julii-Claudian family to leadership over the Empire, the Republic's Senate was made up of patrician land owners who came from upperclass families.


I'm not sure 'leader' means the same thing as 'elite'. You seem to be conflating the two.

Mr.Anonymous wrote:
Point being, human societies will always have some form of elite, even the states proclaiming equality. It is the natural way, as even in animals you will have the alpha male and alpha female in power or the beehive queen. Some form of elite, leaders of the many. The trick is not to attempt to expell the elite altogether, but have the right individuals as the elite. My ideal state would have philosophers like us in power, just as Plato imagined.



A very obvious example of the naturalistic fallacy. Showing that having elites is 'natural' has no relevance whatsoever as to the morality of it.

One of the greatest weaknesses in human nature is to be dogmatic about issues of which we are ignorant.

"There are more things in heaven and earth, Horatio/Than are dreamt of in your philosophy."
Buddahchuck
Bodhisatva
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Jan 16, 2006

Total Topics: 28
Total Posts: 617
Posted 02/12/07 - 11:02 PM:
quote post
#3
First, I want to say that the debate is not what I expected from the topic heading. "Should the masses rule themselves?" This topic seems to suggest that it would be better for the masses to rule themselves than for them to be ruled by some elite leader, and thus, I expected talk of society and its ends. But there were only negative points to the topic of society, and not in the way that would make me prefer having the masses rule over having elites rule.

Now the two sides of the debate:

Pro- the masses should rule themselves.

In order for this to be true, the advocate must advocate a certain value like freedom, and explain why freedom is preferable to order because after all, we can imagine free societies where people get killed by one another, angry mobs rage up and down the street looking for outsiders to lynch. So, I am curious as to why the masses should rule themselves more than why elites should not rule.

Wander wrote:

On the surface of this issue is already a contradiction avoided in the qualifications, "general mass" and "elite". Without great exposition the question of whether or not "humanity should be ruled by itself" is managable before specifying which oligarchy by what attribute will rule whom. Humanity has always ruled itself, currently rules itself, and will always rule itself. An arbitrary subgroup thereof from this book or that has no bearing on the fact that human rulers are members of humanity - even if humanity itself deems them otherwise. If divine inspiration, benevolent aliens, sentient machines, Morlocks, or wayward celestial constructs are hereby proposed as the elite, humanity would do well to yet oppose their rule in favor of living as free humans - or at the prospect of being subtly engineered into lesser creatures by some impossibly complicated devices of Gods or the superintelligent, die finally in that, the most honest war possible a man - against beings that are truly not other man.


I do not find it tedious to make this point, but it presumes a negative result. Is it not possible to have non-human rulers that are entirely benevolent and whose leadership is unquestionably perfect? In a sense, even a human elite rulership that is formed in a utopic vision would somehow be more than human, or at least more than the average Joe. What is inherent in elite leadership that makes it less preferable to being ruled by the masses? This question is hard to answer when there is not given a reason to lead the masses, no matter how well-written it is.

wanderer wrote:

Further, assume such an arete existed - that a man could justly count himself another's master a priori due to some characteristic he exhibited. What relationship would the specialized rulers bear to their slave masses?


What indeed would give the elite such an advantage? What could justify an elite leading so many people? This question is not rhetorical, it needs to be answered. Nietzsche wrote in the genealogy of morals about how the strong, blonde beasts subduing the poor farmers, and the farmers' retaliation was to say that the blonde beasts are stupid, and that intelligence is the most important attribute. But a true elite would have both strength and intelligence, and must be a justified ruler. In order for this debate to continue justly, conflict must arise between the two utopic visions.

Con- the elites should rule the masses

Mr. Anonymous wrote:

First point: Throught mankind's history, society has always believed that in order to be more modern, more civilized, we must inherently be more tolerant, more understanding. The elite have more and more, with each new generation, been looked at as the enemy of this, the source of all oppression and intolerance, the enemy of all that is good.

Our literature depicts the upper class as glutonous pigs, or wicked hawk faced villians. While this occurs, the common man is move up in society's standing. Many of today's movies will have the common farm boy, a good-looking blonde male, embark on a quest to defeat the evil count or duke, or some form of nobility, and rescue the princess. Sometimes, the princess will even be portrayed as heroine who could easily live amoung the common folk, and will often know some martial art.

I grant that the elite have often fitted into this Hollywood-fabricated role. But are the masses any better? The answer must be no. Both the elite philosopher and the common peasant are human, thereby capable (and even predisposed) to error. Left to there own devices, the common shop keeper in ancient Rome, if not married, will most likely go to a bar or brothel, rather than a temple or library.


So the point is that even if the elites are the enemy of the people, they still make better leaders than the people themselves? I am not sure this is true. There is no reason given why one poor form of leadership is more preferable to another; so, I fail to see the relevance of this point in the debate.

Mr. Anonymous wrote:

Second point: So far, humanity has had absolutely no luck creating a society without the High. The earliest human societies, though having very little in the way of an elite class still had clan leaders, who were the high at the time. And although they may have often changed if someone could sieze power from the current leader, but the clan leaders would often have the most access to wealth, food, and women. In the Soviet Union, one of the first communist nations, we had the Communist Party. The Party advocated equality and improved life-style for the proletariat, but in reality it was always amassing wealth and luxury that would be fit for an industrial middle class capitalist for its highest members. In the French Republic of Virtue, we had Emperor Napoleon Bonaparte and his wife. While Napoleon advocated republican virtues and overthrew monarchs, he himself was a monarch who amassed great wealth for himself and established various dukes in France's dependent states. In Rome, even before the ascention of Julii-Claudian family to leadership over the Empire, the Republic's Senate was made up of patrician land owners who came from upperclass families.


If the point is that empirically elites emerge from society, then it can also be said that empirically such societies fall along with the arisen elite.

Sorry if my comments are not is what is being looked for, but it seems like that debate lacks form and is not actually adressing the necessary issues. Why is it so important to have freedom? Why would elites benefit society more than the masses? There needs to be at least some comparative analysis between the two.

coolazice wrote:

Seems to be obviously false. Was Ancient Egypt interested in being more tolerant and understanding in order to be civilized? Was Medieveal Europe? Nazi Germany?


All of these prove the point that he is making--the elite are viewed as the enemy.


I'm not sure 'leader' means the same thing as 'elite'. You seem to be conflating the two.


If you give him the benefit of the doubt, you can see how these examples are relevant to the point he is making. In Rome, the rulers of society were those with wealth and power and the intelligence to wield them. In this sense, 'elite' is an appropriate term for in the society he talking about, he is attempting to describe the truly elite as those who are reasonably justified in leading society.


A very obvious example of the naturalistic fallacy. Showing that having elites is 'natural' has no relevance whatsoever as to the morality of it.


So you think that leadership is a moral question and not one of mere utility? Nonetheless, I think his point stands because if a leader is bound to arise no matter the circumstance, then it would be best if that leader were a just and benevolent leader, and not merely another Robes Pierre.
nosos
skeptical
Avatar

Usergroup: Sponsors
Joined: Jul 24, 2004
Location: Coventry, UK

Total Topics: 145
Total Posts: 2285
Posted 03/01/07 - 04:05 AM:
quote post
#4
The burden of proof shouldn’t be on the person arguing that people should control their own lives. rolling eyes

"The men of the future will yet fight their way to many a liberty that we do not even miss? - Max Stirner

"The person who has nothing for which he is willing to fight, nothing which is more important than his own personal safety, is a miserable creature and has no chance of being free unless made and kept so by the exertions of better men than himself." - JS Mill

"I'd rather be a crying little pussy than a faggy Goth kid." - Butters
acumensch
an anti-hero
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Aug 04, 2005
Location: Tacoma, Washington

Total Topics: 3
Total Posts: 417
Posted 03/21/07 - 04:50 PM:
quote post
#5
Yes, the elitist has the burden of proof. And historical arguments aren't going anywhere without psychoanalysis!


Edited by Paul on 03/22/07 - 03:49 PM. Reason: illiteracy

Man is something to be overcome. What have you done to overcome him?
http://utopiaorbust.wordpress.com
Buddahchuck
Bodhisatva
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Jan 16, 2006

Total Topics: 28
Total Posts: 617
Posted 03/22/07 - 08:13 PM:
quote post
#6
Nosos wrote:

The burden of proof shouldn’t be on the person arguing that people should control their own lives.


The debate is not over whether people should control their own lives, the question is whether "people" as a whole should rule the people (i.e. establish laws and whatnot).

acumensch wrote:

Yes, the elitist has the burden of proof.


Typically, the person who is defending the status quo gets presumption and the other opts for a change. In a debate where one person is arguing that in the status quo, elites rule the government, then we cannot say that the elitist has the burden of proof because the status quo is presumed right. My suggestion would be to drop the discussion of burden of proof altogether, and require both parties to prove their point.
Caldwell
Zuleiha's owner
Avatar

Usergroup: Moderators
Joined: Apr 18, 2006
Location: Crawl space

Total Topics: 1
Total Posts: 2224
Posted 03/25/07 - 05:32 PM:
quote post
#7
Buddahchuck wrote:

Typically, the person who is defending the status quo gets presumption and the other opts for a change. In a debate where one person is arguing that in the status quo, elites rule the government, then we cannot say that the elitist has the burden of proof because the status quo is presumed right. My suggestion would be to drop the discussion of burden of proof altogether, and require both parties to prove their point.

In fact, I think the burden of proof is a very apt concern in this debate. And the rule of thumb is -- the person, or those, who make/s a controversial claim should have the burden of proof. The elite ruling the masses has been, at many different times, viewed as a controversial historical phenomenon. And so, it is only fair that the person arguing for rule by the few over the many (and I'm not talking about "representative", if you can see the irony in this) should at least shoulder the burden of providing proof that it is the right thing to do. As an aside, "proof" here, especially that this is a political/social issue, does not mean proof as in other department of studies (math, logic, natural science...I'm assuming you know what I mean).
Buddahchuck
Bodhisatva
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Jan 16, 2006

Total Topics: 28
Total Posts: 617
Posted 03/28/07 - 06:59 PM:
quote post
#8
But my contingency with the whole concept of "burden of proof" in this debate is that there are historically NO governments that are actually ruled by the masses, rather, there are only governments that are ruled by the elites. So, saying that the few should rule the many could be construed as non-controvercial. On the other hand, I see that in this time, many people believe that the masses should control the government, social contract etc. In such a debate, the burden of proof stays with both sides, or in other words, one person needs to prove that the advocated scenario is more desirable than the alternative. In such an idealistic debate, a reasonable conclusion can only be reached if we ignore talk of burden of proof because we are trying to say why one ideal is better than another. I see no reason to merely presume that the masses should rule themselves.
Caldwell
Zuleiha's owner
Avatar

Usergroup: Moderators
Joined: Apr 18, 2006
Location: Crawl space

Total Topics: 1
Total Posts: 2224
Posted 03/28/07 - 10:43 PM:
quote post
#9
Buddahchuck wrote:
But my contingency with the whole concept of "burden of proof" in this debate is that there are historically NO governments that are actually ruled by the masses, rather, there are only governments that are ruled by the elites.

In fact, there is a system of government that allows the masses to participate -- the democratic form. I mentioned "representative" to imply this. The masses are represented by elected politicians. If we stick to the true meanings of these words, we do have rule by the masses. The "few" is understood to mean the "elites" -- the exclusive group or class that has all the power to decide how the state should be. The oligarchs exclusively belong to the ruling class.

If I miss something, please let me know. I thought this is what the debate is about. "Rule by the masses" does not literally mean, each member of the masses sits in congress or parliament.
Buddahchuck
Bodhisatva
Avatar

Usergroup: Members
Joined: Jan 16, 2006

Total Topics: 28
Total Posts: 617
Posted 03/31/07 - 07:57 PM:
quote post
#10
caldwell wrote:

"elites" -- the exclusive group or class that has all the power to decide how the state should be.


This seems to describe the current system of democracy we are using right now.

Representative government and Elitism are not mutually exclusive. The argument presented in the debate is that Elitism is an inevitable product of Western Society. So when we talk about some leader representing the masses, we could also say that a monarchy is representative of the masses, or even facism, for both, state officials are meant to represent the people. Supposedly, a democracy allows for the people to have some decision in who their leaders might be, but empirically this is not the case. Because this argument is being presented, we cannot presume that having the power in the hands of the people is best. Perhaps if there was more topical clarity that provides a brightline as to what is ruling by the masses and what is not, then we could exlude elitism and democracy, but seeing as how the topic does not define the issue in this way, then the debate must be about the principle of having the masses rule or having the elites rule.

Caldwell wrote:

The masses are represented by elected politicians. If we stick to the true meanings of these words, we do have rule by the masses.


There is a difference between politicians and rule by the people:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Governance#The_state_and_politics]
Some suggest that there should be a clear distinction between the concepts of governance and politics. Politics involves processes by which a group of people with initially divergent opinions or interests reach collective decisions generally regarded as binding on the group, and enforced as common policy. Governance, on the other hand, conveys the administrative and process-oriented elements of governing rather than its antagonistic ones.


One could even argue that a politician as an elected representative of the people is a part of an exclusive group. The true meaning of your words suggests that for convenience's sake, the people do not take place in governance, or "rule", but rather they send an exclusive member of their community to choose who governs for them. This, however, is not an exact enough representation of the people to describe governing by the masses because the only decision the people truly make is which elite to send, not how their state is governed.
Download thread as

Page: 1 2



Sorry, you don't have permission to post. Log in, or register if you haven't yet.