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Can reason defend itself?

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Can reason defend itself?
jwdink
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Posted 08/02/07 - 08:40 AM:
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#41
While this is true, that does not discredit the fact that some statements are self-evident and require no proof outside themselves. You agreed with me in concept, just not in the particular.


You're right, I apologize, I was just nitpicking. I agree that this statement is self-evident by definition, I'm not sure any other statements are like this. I also don't see this as being able to justify reason.

I understand how you can insert another premise which would once again attempt to prove the conclusion. But my question is about why it is necessary to do so as opposed to accepting the conclusion as internally consistent.

Please, explain.


Oh, it's not neccessary by any stretch of the imagination.

The story, about Achilles and the Turtle, shows that, when asked for justification of simple, logical conclusions, we can't give any (without infinite regress). Now, this doesn't mean that these simple logical conclusions are self-evident, it only means they seem obvious, and are apparently unjustified. AKA taken on faith.


Actually, we do not agree at all. I was suggesting that there are a variety of circumstances where it is rational to use reason--and this is a key to the question can reason defend itself. If it is rational to use reason, then reason is defended.

Further, reason is not simply a type of belief that it is rational to use reason. You seem to me have lost track of the difference between the question--how shall we best approach uncertainty--a question with a potentially rational answer--and assuming any uncertainty or probability makes reason uncertain and no better than...well what exactly?--because the alternatives are exactly what we have to examine.


I'm not really understanding what you're saying here-- that last sentence especially is quite a bit of a run on.

It's not about arguing for alternatives, as I've insisted, it's about reason's inability to defend its most basic axioms in any manner. You seem to want to avoid responding to this, instead attacking the straw man "gut feelings". That won't help you.

A discussion or argument with another person is only possible if we agree on something--definitions of terms, rules of inference etc. Other wise, I could reply to you "Etion shredlu canw quzxw!" And add--I have refuted you! Without such reasonable requirements as agreement on the meaning of words and rules of inference, it is not just that reason cannot defend itself, but rather than any discussion or argument is impossible. You have confused the conditions for argument or discussion itself, with the conditions for defending reason.


Again, just because rejecting reason results in highly unintelligible discussions (I would of course reply "fuza-wuza. bird testicle.") does not mean that reason has successfully justified itself. It just means the alternative is high unintelligible--not that it is "wrong".

Additionally, I see no reason why intelligent discussion couldn't occur if I was just using a somewhat altered form of reason, that was internally consistent. I could just reject one logical axiom, for instance.

Now if you think the above are equally worthwhile with respect to more reasoned alternatives, and think you would be happy to accept all of them, then by all means reject reason. If not, think very carefully about why you reject them, and realize that reason is more rational than some possible alternatives.


Again, demonstrating the silliness of rejecting reason does not give a valid justification of reason itself. Of course these things you've listed seem silly. The reason for this is that they contradict varies axioms that I can't help but have faith in, as a human. This is, however, in no way a demonstration of these axioms' validity. You're going to have to try a different approach.


Edited by jwdink on 08/02/07 - 08:52 AM
Renzo
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Posted 08/02/07 - 09:12 AM:
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#42
jwdink wrote:
I agree that this statement is self-evident by definition, I'm not sure any other statements are like this. I also don't see this as being able to justify reason.


Other examples of this would be, for instance, the Theory of Contradiction or Aristotle's First Principle. The former states "Either there is something, or there is nothing." The latter states "For the same characteristic simultaneously to belong and not belong to the same object in the same way is impossible."

These are two more examples of self-evidence because any doubt in these at all would be based on an inherent inconsistency. If that is the case, why would this not justify reason? If any doubt at all is illogical or inconsistent, then why would one doubt it to begin with?

It seems to be the only option. Therefore, the two above statements should defend themselves.

jwdink wrote:
Oh, it's not neccessary by any stretch of the imagination.

The story, about Achilles and the Turtle, shows that, when asked for justification of simple, logical conclusions, we can't give any (without infinite regress). Now, this doesn't mean that these simple logical conclusions are self-evident, it only means they seem obvious, and are apparently unjustified. AKA taken on faith.


There seems to be a lot of ambiguity here in the definition of faith. You seem to agree that the statement is logical, obvious, and simple. To me, that is diametrically opposed to faith, since there is really no reason to doubt. How are you defining faith in this case?

If there can be a syllogism which is internally consistent (i.e. not contradicting itself) and whose conclusion is justified by its premises to the point where there is no reason for doubt to exist, why, then, should it be considered faith? It seems that it would be considered faith only because the premises are assumed. But, as I stated earlier, the concept of mortality is independent of interpretation: it exists regardless of internal thought.

And, even if it is still assumed the premises cannot be known with certainty, that still does not address the Theory of Contradiction and First Principle shown above, as they still defend themselves, independently of other elements.

There are few things I desire more than to be proven incorrect. The philosopher must play his own devil's advocate, for this is his best method to attain truth.
jwdink
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Posted 08/02/07 - 10:20 AM:
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Other examples of this would be, for instance, the Theory of Contradiction or Aristotle's First Principle. The former states "Either there is something, or there is nothing." The latter states "For the same characteristic simultaneously to belong and not belong to the same object in the same way is impossible."

These are two more examples of self-evidence because any doubt in these at all would be based on an inherent inconsistency. If that is the case, why would this not justify reason? If any doubt at all is illogical or inconsistent, then why would one doubt it to begin with?

It seems to be the only option. Therefore, the two above statements should defend themselves.


Hmm... interesting. I'll have to chew that over. I suppose there is indeed a difference between "unprovable but obvious", and "self-evidently true". The former, I still assert, must be taken on faith, but it does seem like a mischaracterization to claim the latter as faith.

There seems to be a lot of ambiguity here in the definition of faith. You seem to agree that the statement is logical, obvious, and simple. To me, that is diametrically opposed to faith, since there is really no reason to doubt. How are you defining faith in this case?


Ha, yeah, I suppose it would be appropriate for me to define the word before I start a thread on its place in reasoning.

Faith is belief in a proposition without justification.

Now, you'll notice this definition has nothing to do with "reasons to doubt". I have no reason to doubt that logical axioms are true, but my only justification for them is obviousness. This isn't really a proper justification, thus, my belief in the validity of these axioms is based on faith.

After all, "lack of reason to doubt" could be applied to lots of articles of faith. If I believe in something that is unfalsifiable, like invisible ghosts, then I have no evidence that contradicts them. Yet it's an article of faith, because I have no reason whatsoever to believe that they exist.

And, even if it is still assumed the premises cannot be known with certainty, that still does not address the Theory of Contradiction and First Principle shown above, as they still defend themselves, independently of other elements.


Yeah, that might just happen to be a weakness in my argument. I'm not quite sure.

Let's examine the theory of contradiction a bit more closely. "A cannot be both B and not B at the same time in the same way (etc)." What reason do we have to believe that this is true? It's not true by definition, is it? It's not so much self-evident as it is obvious. Again, I'm going to insist that this seems like faith.
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Posted 08/02/07 - 10:51 AM:
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#44
jwdink wrote:
Let's examine the theory of contradiction a bit more closely. "A cannot be both B and not B at the same time in the same way (etc)." What reason do we have to believe that this is true? It's not true by definition, is it? It's not so much self-evident as it is obvious. Again, I'm going to insist that this seems like faith.


To say "A cannot be both B and not B at the same time" is essentially the same as saying "For the same characteristic simultaneously to belong and not belong to the same object in the same way is impossible." The only difference is the physical format of the statement because if A is capable of being B, then it can be considered the same object when it is the same as B.

So, I think the real question is about how the following statements differ:
"Either there is something, or there is nothing."
"A cannot be both B and not B at the same time."

The first statement is comprised of two parts. These two parts are perfectly opposed to each other, for the terms "something" and "nothing" have opposite meanings. To believe one part of the statement is to deny the other part of the statement. If you stated "I believe there is nothing," then you cannot state "I believe there is something," and vice versa. Therefore, any doubt in the statement as a whole would be based on an intrinsic inconsistency.

The Theory of Contradiction and First Principle are using the same concept: a quality must remain constant in the same object so long as the object is unchanged.

There are few things I desire more than to be proven incorrect. The philosopher must play his own devil's advocate, for this is his best method to attain truth.
jwdink
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Posted 08/02/07 - 01:17 PM:
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#45
I think you misunderstood me-- saying "A cannot be both B and not B at the same time" was just me restating the law of contradiction, not my actual argument. My actual argument is this:

"What reason do we have to believe that this is true? It's not true by definition, is it? It's not so much self-evident as it is obvious. Again, I'm going to insist that this seems like faith."

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Posted 08/02/07 - 05:29 PM:
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#46
jwdink wrote:


I'm not really understanding what you're saying here-- that last sentence especially is quite a bit of a run on.

It's not about arguing for alternatives, as I've insisted, it's about reason's inability to defend its most basic axioms in any manner. You seem to want to avoid responding to this, instead attacking the straw man "gut feelings". That won't help you.


We are obviously having trouble understanding one another.

So let me raise some questions, and then provide my alternative in a hopefully clearer manner.

What on earth do you mean by reason? Do you actually think there is some set of axioms from which all reason is derived, and these axioms are written down somewhere or other?

The very idea seems to me absurd. Now if you were talking about say propositional logic or geometry, or arithmetic, then I might imagine that there are systems of axioms. But for reason itself? Where do you hope to find such a list?

Now there are many principles of reasons, but there is no such set of axioms. For example, we might call some principle axioms and derive others from them, but we could equally well call a completely different set of principles axioms, and derive the remainder from them.

Logic and mathematics are axiomatic. If induction and rules of evidence are axiomatic, no one has yet succeeded in deriving the axioms. If decision making is rational, people constantly debate what the exact rules are.

Further, we know the rules change over time. Predicate logic, non-Euclidean geometry and probability did not exist at one time and now they do. Thus reason evolves and changes.

Now, I want to direct your attention to a completely different activity than a logical justification of the non-existent “axioms” of reason.

Let us suppose someone lists a set of principles of reason. Let us even suppose none of these are certain or provable. This prove nothing about the indefensibility of these propositions. This result instead should inspire the question “Which principles do I want to adopt and why?”

Now I have consistently made the point, though perhaps not clearly enough, that this second question itself requires reason. We can suspend a given principle, but not all principles—otherwise, what can we say?

Let me further point out that the question I wish to raise requires goals and criteria—which are in some sense subjective. You and I may have different goals and criteria. The key error you are making seems to me that either reason is either provably objectively true, or it is not. I wish to suggest it cannot and never has been provably true, but rather the validity of reason for specific purposes is established by asking not what is provably true, but what shall we do? This in turn implies the questions of what do we wish to accomplish, and what can we say about the best means of accomplishing this.

Hence my constant emphasis, not of proving reason, but on asking what exactly is the alternative.

Our problem is not what can we prove—very little, I agree—but what shall we do, given our uncertainty. And I think this question has rational answers—but only if we admit we cannot question everything all at once.


jwdink wrote:

Again, just because rejecting reason results in highly unintelligible discussions (I would of course reply "fuza-wuza. bird testicle.") Does not mean that reason has successfully justified itself. It just means the alternative is high unintelligible--not that it is "wrong".


Let me use this as an example of criteria driven reasoning.

Obviously we could have a discussion in which I said "Etion shredlu canw quzxw!" and you said "fuza-wuza. bird testicle." We are not having that discussion because we actually do have a goal—reasonable communication. Given this goal, such a conversation, would obviously accomplish nothing. The problem is not that such communications are “wrong” as you suppose, but rather that they would fail to achieve our mutual goal of having an intelligible discussion.

jwdink wrote:

Additionally, I see no reason why intelligent discussion couldn't occur if I was just using a somewhat altered form of reason, that was internally consistent. I could just reject one logical axiom, for instance.


I do not know why you would think I would disagree with this. I have said more than once that reason changes; that there may be equal or better sets of principles of reason; and that one can question reason a principle at a time. My point has consistently been that we cannot reject all of reason simultaneously, and say anything whatsoever.

For example, I note a discussion above of the principle of non-contradiction. I agree it is non-obvious, and that, indeed, many philosophers have questioned the principle.

But how did they question the principle—by using reason and showing the advantageous results of ignoring this principle while retaining other aspects of reason.

jwdink wrote:
Again, demonstrating the silliness of rejecting reason does not give a valid justification of reason itself. Of course these things you've listed seem silly. The reason for this is that they contradict varies axioms that I can't help but have faith in, as a human. This is, however, in no way a demonstration of these axioms' validity. You're going to have to try a different approach.


Let me clarify. You can, in fact, humanly avoid putting your faith in anything in particular. There is nothing innately human or intuitive about reason. The most elementary study of psychology will quickly show that the most people constantly make absolutely elementary errors in the application of propositional logic, predicate logic, and probability.

Just for example, Newtonian mechanics, general relativity, and quantum mechanics are not intuitive. they are in fact, enormously counter-intuitive. In spite of their coutner intuitive qualities, we can and do adopt them because they enable us to achieve goals that their predecessors did not.

Reason is not something we are stuck with and cannot avoid—it is a result of a lot of effort, constantly leading to counter intuitive results.

My question is not do you find these statements silly—my question is do you actually wish to take these alternatives seriously and why or why not? This is not a matter of axioms or intuition—it is a straight question about how your best interests are served—do you think they will be served by adopting these positions? And how are you going to answer this question without using some form of reason?

Added on edit: In the end, what I am saying is reason is a rational choice in many circumstances not because it is demonstrably certain (the only criteria you allow) but because it is, in many circumstances, the best choice under uncertainty. The defense of reason is then not an axiomatic proof as you suppose, but a serious examination of the alternatives available and what they accomplish. Such an examination can only be conducted using at least some principles of reason. We can question any given principle--but not all the principles at once.



Edited by Nonblack Raven on 08/02/07 - 05:51 PM

NBR
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Posted 08/02/07 - 07:01 PM:
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jwdink wrote:
"What reason do we have to believe that this is true? It's not true by definition, is it? It's not so much self-evident as it is obvious. Again, I'm going to insist that this seems like faith."


I see your definition of faith is "a proposition without justification." How, then, is this common concept between the two propositions I stated earlier without justification?

"A quality must remain constant in the same object so long as the object is unchanged."

How is this a statement of faith? Where can doubt exist? Can you give me an example where the statement is false?

If you can disprove the statement or provide an example where it is inconsistent of itself, then I will believe it is a matter of faith. But until a proposition supported by reason can be falsified in practice, why should it be considered a statement of faith?

There are few things I desire more than to be proven incorrect. The philosopher must play his own devil's advocate, for this is his best method to attain truth.
jwdink
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Posted 08/02/07 - 07:13 PM:
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#48
NBR, as I suggested before, I really don't think we disagree all that much. We both agree that reason is best approach to uncertainty. We both agree discussion cannot occur without it. And we both agree that it can't be defended with some axiomatic proof, nor it is demonstratably certain. We also agree that that is okay.

I think the main problem in communication we are having is how we're using "reason". You give examples of newtonian physics, etc. etc. I believe I was conceptualizing something much more fundamental than this. For instance, we trust that things tend towards consistency. The sun will continue to rise every day. We trust that things can not be both "A" and "not A". Etc. Etc. I was calling things like these the most foundational points of reason. If you have a better name for them, I would be glad to adopt it. At any rate, these things are by definition unjustifiable, and that's perfectly alright. As such, I was characterizing our trust in them as a sort of faith. This idea, apparently, was uncongenial to you. Why is this? I am not equating it with religious faith. I merely call it that because there is no justification for our trust in it.
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Posted 08/02/07 - 07:22 PM:
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Renzo wrote:


I see your definition of faith is "a proposition without justification." How, then, is this common concept between the two propositions I stated earlier without justification?

"A quality must remain constant in the same object so long as the object is unchanged."

How is this a statement of faith? Where can doubt exist? Can you give me an example where the statement is false?

If you can disprove the statement or provide an example where it is inconsistent of itself, then I will believe it is a matter of faith. But until a proposition supported by reason can be falsified in practice, why should it be considered a statement of faith?


You seem to have verbally accepted my definition of faith, but then gone on to continue to use yours. Remember, in my mind, faith has nothing to do with "belief despite reason to doubt". It's just "belief without justification." What justification do I have to believe that a quality will remain constant? I've never seen it happen before, but that doesn't mean it couldn't. It seems counter-intuitive-- even repulsive-- to me, but that's not really justification.

If we used the alternative definition of faith, I think we'd have some problems. For instance, I could believe that tiny, invisible, massless unicorns danced around the earth all the time. Strictly speaking, I have no reason to doubt this-- there's no evidence to say that this isn't true (it's not actually falsifiable, since they're invisible and massless). So by your definition, it's not faith. Yet I have no reason to believe it, so by my definition, it's a proposition of faith.
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Posted 08/02/07 - 09:25 PM:
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jwdink wrote:
You seem to have verbally accepted my definition of faith, but then gone on to continue to use yours. Remember, in my mind, faith has nothing to do with "belief despite reason to doubt". It's just "belief without justification." What justification do I have to believe that a quality will remain constant? I've never seen it happen before, but that doesn't mean it couldn't. It seems counter-intuitive-- even repulsive-- to me, but that's not really justification.


If I continued to make my post again without including my definition of faith and used only yours, would you then proceed to answer why the statement is not justified without using metaphors of invisible unicorns? (That made me laugh, by the way, since it refers to my avatar -- Invisible Pink Unicorns.)

So, for the sake of argument, let's adopt strictly your definition of faith (which seems reasonable enough): a proposition without justification. I'll ask again. How is the statement below lacking justification?

"A quality must remain constant in the same object so long as the object is unchanged."

Let's investigate the matter more closely. Consider this: the entirety of an object's qualities are what define the object itself. So if we call the whole of the object's qualities the object itself, then the two terms are literally interchangeable. Then the statement may be rewritten a number of different ways while retaining its conceptual meaning, repeatedly being simplified and being made easier to accept.

1. "A quality must remain constant in the same object so long as the object is unchanged."
2. "A quality remains constant if its object is unchanged."

But a quality defines its object, so:

3. "An object must remain constant as long as the object remains unchanged."
4. "An object remains constant if unchanged."

So, I'll propose the question again. How is this statement unjustified?

And, more importantly, let me ask this in relation to your original point. How does this statement not defend itself? It's almost the same as saying "A is A."

There are few things I desire more than to be proven incorrect. The philosopher must play his own devil's advocate, for this is his best method to attain truth.
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