Another Kant question!: Philosophy Forums

Another Kant question!

Spin
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Posted 10/27/09 - 02:18 PM: Subject: Another Kant question!	#1
Just a quick one I think! Why is Kant sometimes described as an Dualist, when it seems to me that he just says that non of reality really exists, not that there are two kinds of reality. Have I got this totally wrong!? Thanks!

Soylent
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Posted 10/29/09 - 08:32 PM:	#2
Are you suggesting that Kant is merely an Idealist rather than transcendental idealist?

Noumenal1
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1 of 1 people found this post helpful Posted 10/31/09 - 08:10 AM:	#3
Kant is not saying "none [sic] of reality really exists", ....he is not a idealist in the hegelian sense. He wasn't happy where Fitch, Hegel took his ideas. I don't think he was a dualists either. If one describes him as a dualist, they probably mean (i.e. as they ascribe to Kant)... that there are two realities, 'phenomenal reality', the conceptual structure of which is determined by our intellectual faculties,... and Noumenal reality, which lacking this conceptual structure is unknowable by definition. I don't think describing Kant as a dualist is accurate. There are not two realities, there is only one. To have knowledge of it is to subject it to a-priori conditions given the nature of mind. This does not create another reality per say, but rather maps Reality into a form dependant on mind. If I can put it this way,... E=C(R) E= Our Experience (phenomenal reality); C = Kant's Categories of the understanding, a-priori intuitions; R = Reality proper (Noumenal).

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