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Analytic-synthetic vs priori/ posteriori
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Posted 07/15/09 - 09:49 PM:
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#61
This is my two cents.
5+7=12 is analytic proposition.
5+7=7 is a proposition that is learned from a priori synthetic judgement in light of you guys' perspective.

According to kant, transcendental synthesis come to take place when sensibility is added to understanding. What make true statement true depends on simultaneous superimposition of intuition and concept in regard to object.

I presume that 5+7=12 is empirically truth, however, 5+7=7 is intelligibly truth.


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Posted 07/16/09 - 09:39 AM:
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#62
First some previous comments I missed:
Death Monkey wrote:

I said that it is nonsensical to say that specifying what something is does not constitute a definition

This is not what you said. You said (the bold):

The definition of a set can, and indeed must, specify which elements are instantiated in that set. To say that this is not a definition is nonsensical, because it is nothing more than specifying what the set is.

The underlined is a reason you provided which I showed was insufficient. In post #49 the first thing you do is to admit that I am correct, that the specification of what the set S is, is not a definition, because it makes a singular judgment. Henceforth it is not a sufficient reason that something is a specification of a set, for it to be a definition.

How can I use a hammer to build a chair when hammers don't build anything?

I think we are arguing over semantics here. The point is that numbers are conceptual tools that we use when describing things.

What does "conceptual tool" mean? A concept describes a set of characteristics necessary for a thing to be classified as such e.g the characteristics of "man" and "unmarried" are necessary for being a "bachelor" If a number is a concept, it must have certain characteristics which it describes of things.



Likewise, when you say "5 + 7 = 12", unless you specify some units or specific context, I would interpret this to be saying "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12"

But this is not the same statement as the underlined. That P is the same as P is true is trivial, and in fact the same statement, this is not the case about "5+7=12" and "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12"

Now, maybe you didn't inted the statement that way. But then you have some other context in mind. If so, you need to specify that context. But if that context is such that the statement is one about reality, then it is not what I would consider to be a (purely) mathematical statement anymore.
[quote]
According to your own above statement, it does not make the same predictions as GR. It is a different theory.

A different theory can make the same predictions as another theory e.g. "The summer will be cold and rainy" makes the same predictions as "The summer will be cold". It just makes additional predictions.


your justification for this would have to be based on sensory information, because that is the only source of information about the world that you have.

Why is this the only source of information I have?

Only because you do not recognize that you are talking about completely different statements.

The statement "parallel lines never intersect according to the axioms of euclidean geometry" is an analytic statement.

The statement "parallel lines never intersect in reality" is a synthetic statement.

Still you make reference to the "parallell postulate" with "it" in both cases. That is very confusing, or do you mean to say the parallell postulate is a sentence that has these two different interpretation?

I already did. One possible explanation is that mass is not a conserved quantity under the conditions of the experiment. In other words, that the rules of addition don't apply under those conditions.

We know that they do, but again this knowledge is a posteriori.

Actually there are cases where mass do not conserve e.g. nuclear fission, during which mass is converted into kinetic energy. Now this types of situations would not count as refutations of 5kg+7kg=12kg in my interpretation of the statement, because putting together the masses resulting in fission is not an example of the statement in the first place. One of the things my interpretation says is that the objects measured must be represented as simultaneous (one thing that Kant made clear according to the document I provided earlier.) which prevents them from altering during the process.

Which part are you asking about?

Sorry, I meant about the last sentence. Why am I just talking about a new sense? In any case you seem to have defined "sense" as "source of information about reality". If this is the case then certainly our disagreement about whether "math is a priori synthetic or not" is at least semantic. According to Kant, senses are only a specific kind of way our knowledge can immediately relate to objects, namely a passive way i.e. through being affected by them. It is by itself not able to inform us of anything but merely provide us with incontrovertible data of how it is affected by objects i.e. sensations. As an example of this. Put one hand in cold water, and the other in hot water. Then put both in the same water. One will produce a cold sensation while the other a hot sensation. Neither is wrong, because they do not represent the temperature of the water, but how we are affected by it. Now given that a posteriori/a priori distinction is based on the definition of sense, it shouldn't be surprising that we are in disagreement if you use a different definition of "sense", but this may just be a disagreement in semantics.



jtoma

After reading your posts a few times, it is quite evident you have a different concept of what is analytic and what is synthetic, and slightly different concept of what is a priori and a posteriori, but I am still not entirely sure what you are saying (certain passages seems to make sense while others not.) It seems you base the analytic synthetic distinction on two stages of a linguistic process. The notion of "rule" is also hard to place. I cannot make much comments without knowing for sure what you are saying.

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Posted 07/16/09 - 10:16 AM:
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#63
jtoma,

still have to argue that purely mathematical statements are analytic, for the reasons I mentioned in my posts to Keda. Likewise I would argue that metaphysical claims still do not qualify as being a priori.

RIght, they are analytic, they proceed by rule from definitions or assumptions. BUT if I prove that every even integer greater than 2 can be axpressed as the sum of two primes, then I would synthetically judge that I had proved it, based on the synthesis of concepts relatable but had not yet been related.

I absolutely agree. I have been trying to make this distinction for a while now in this thread. Specifically, that the statements "5 + 7 = 12", "I know that 5 + 7 = 12", "I have derived that 5 + 7 = 12", and "5 + 7 = 12 is an accurate statement about some aspect of reality", are all very different statements.

Likewise metaphysical claims, for example, about whether facts are tensed or not, are chosen assumptions upon which to base reasoning.

I would not even really call them "assumptions", so much as just ways of conceptualizing things. I do not think that it is actually meaningful to try to say that a metaphysical statement is a true or false statement about reality. I think that to attempt to do so amounts to making a category mistake. This issue is rather a digression from the current topic, though. Suffice it to say that even if it is meaningful to say that such statements have a truth value, I do not think that it is possible, even in principle, to obtain justification for believing that such a statement is actually true.

That act of choice may be an experience, but I think it is a thought experience, so it is a priori. Do you really think metaphysical claims are a posteriori?

No, I think that they are neither a prioir nor a posteriori. I do not think that such judgements can be justified.


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Posted 07/16/09 - 10:57 AM:
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#64
keda,

The underlined is a reason you provided which I showed was insufficient. In post #49 the first thing you do is to admit that I am correct, that the specification of what the set S is, is not a definition, because it makes a singular judgment. Henceforth it is not a sufficient reason that something is a specification of a set, for it to be a definition.

This is incorrect. As I already explained, your attempt at a counter-example fails, because your so-called "definition" does not just specify what a particular set is, but also makes a synthetic claim. And as I have already explained, this same criticizm is not applicable to the definition of the natural numbers, because the "singular judgements" involved there are not synthetic claims. As I already pointed out, you are making an invalid generalization from the fact that some singular judgements are synthetic, to saying that all of the must be.

What does "conceptual tool" mean? A concept describes a set of characteristics necessary for a thing to be classified as such e.g the characteristics of "man" and "unmarried" are necessary for being a "bachelor" If a number is a concept, it must have certain characteristics which it describes of things.

Numbers have characteristics that can be used to describe things, obviously. The natural numbers have ordering characteristics that can be used for counting physical objects, as an example. But no physical objects need exist for them to have those ordering properties. They have them by definition. The fact that we can use numbers to count objects is not a fact about numbers. It is a fact about a relationship between numbers and physical objects. That this relationship obtains is a synthetic fact, but the definition of the natural numbers in no way asserts nor requires that such a relationship exist.

Likewise, when you say "5 + 7 = 12", unless you specify some units or specific context, I would interpret this to be saying "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12"

But this is not the same statement as the underlined.

It is not the same sentence. Whether or not it is the same statement depends on what that sentence is interpreted to mean. I have just explained what I interpret the sentence to mean. As I already stated, if you interpret the sentence "5 + 7 = 12" to mean something other than that, then you need to explain what you interpret it to mean. I am fairly certain that what you interpret it to mean is not a purely mathematical statement at all, but instead a statement about a relationship between mathematics and reality.

A different theory can make the same predictions as another theory e.g. "The summer will be cold and rainy" makes the same predictions as "The summer will be cold". It just makes additional predictions.

Aside from the fact that this point has no relevance to the particular case at hand, you are quibbling about semantics here. The set of predictions made by two such theories is not the same set.

your justification for this would have to be based on sensory information, because that is the only source of information about the world that you have.

Why is this the only source of information I have?

Because information about the world does not just magically appear in our brains from nowhere. If you think it does, then you need to explain why you think this is a reasonable assertion to make.

Still you make reference to the "parallell postulate" with "it" in both cases. That is very confusing, or do you mean to say the parallell postulate is a sentence that has these two different interpretation?

No. I would always use the parallell postulate in the first sense. If I wanted to express something like the second case, I would make clear that I am talking about the parallell postulate accurately describing some part of reality.

That is the whole point I have been trying to make. When sentences like these are presented without any qualification or expression of context to indicate that they are intended to refer to reality in some way (for example, by giving units), then they are to be interpreted as purely mathematical statements. They are statements about what follows from a specified (or implied) set of axioms.

Actually there are cases where mass do not conserve e.g. nuclear fission, during which mass is converted into kinetic energy. Now this types of situations would not count as refutations of 5kg+7kg=12kg in my interpretation of the statement, because putting together the masses resulting in fission is not an example of the statement in the first place. One of the things my interpretation says is that the objects measured must be represented as simultaneous (one thing that Kant made clear according to the document I provided earlier.) which prevents them from altering during the process.

Irrelevant. There is still no a priori garauntee that the statement will hold. The only reason we even expect it to hold, is because we have observed that it does. For that matter, if we had not made such observations, it never would have occurred to us to invent the concept of "mass" in the first place. The very claim that there is such a thing as "mass", is a posteriori.

Sorry, I meant about the last sentence. Why am I just talking about a new sense? In any case you seem to have defined "sense" as "source of information about reality".

Because as far as I can see, that appears to be the only defining characteristic that the things we do call "senses" all have. Our senses provide us with information about the world around us, and about our own bodies. For example, I don't see any meaningful distinction between my sense of hunger, which provides me with information about my metabolic functions, and my sense of awareness of my own thoughts, which provides me with information about mental functions.

Now, if you do make such a distinction, as jtoma does, that's fine too. But even then, the only synthetic a priori judgements will be judgements about your own mental processes. There's no way that sort of information is going to provide you with justifications about things like whether parallell straight-lines in space ever intersect, or whether masses combine according to the rules of arithmetic. For that matter, it could not even provide you with the information you would need to make the judgement that there is such a thing as "space" or "mass".

If this is the case then certainly our disagreement about whether "math is a priori synthetic or not" is at least semantic. According to Kant, senses are only a specific kind of way our knowledge can immediately relate to objects, namely a passive way i.e. through being affected by them. It is by itself not able to inform us of anything but merely provide us with incontrovertible data of how it is affected by objects i.e. sensations. As an example of this. Put one hand in cold water, and the other in hot water. Then put both in the same water. One will produce a cold sensation while the other a hot sensation. Neither is wrong, because they do not represent the temperature of the water, but how we are affected by it. Now given that a posteriori/a priori distinction is based on the definition of sense, it shouldn't be surprising that we are in disagreement if you use a different definition of "sense", but this may just be a disagreement in semantics.

The disagreement is not just about semantics. Even if I accept your definition of what constitutes a sense, I still cannot agree that judgements about specific relationships between mathematics and reality can be made without reference to sensory information. Introspection alone cannot tell you anything about the world beyond your mind.


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Posted 07/16/09 - 11:14 AM:
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#65
Sorry keda, I didn’t mean to be obscure, I was just worried about getting left behind in the reading so I tried to put my thoughts on what happened before in the thread down on paper before I forgot them. Anyway, which passages didn’t make sense? What do you mean by two-stage linguistic process? Was that what was troubling?

Also, sorry Death Monkey. I won't be able to get to your posts today. (urs weren't up when i started)

Death Monkey wrote:

The definition of a set can, and indeed must, specify which elements are instantiated in that set. To say that this is not a definition is nonsensical, because it is nothing more than specifying what the set is.

keda wrote:

The underlined is a reason you provided which I showed was insufficient. In post #49 the first thing you do is to admit that I am correct, that the specification of what the set S is, is not a definition, because it makes a singular judgment. Henceforth it is not a sufficient reason that something is a specification of a set, for it to be a definition.


Right, you specify the elements of a set, thereby stipulating that set. Elements might have definitions. Sets have definitions as well, but lets say that stipulating yields a particular under the definition of set. So stipulating a set is choosing one from among many, where the many is determined by rule of definition.

Death Monkey wrote:

How can I use a hammer to build a chair when hammers don't build anything? I think we are arguing over semantics here. The point is that numbers are conceptual tools that we use when describing things.

keda wrote:

What does "conceptual tool" mean? A concept describes a set of characteristics necessary for a thing to be classified as such e.g the characteristics of "man" and "unmarried" are necessary for being a "bachelor" If a number is a concept, it must have certain characteristics which it describes of things.


Numbers can represent instances of sets...

keda wrote:
That P is the same as P is true is trivial, and in fact the same statement, this is not the case about "5+7=12" and "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12"


Let me stipulate a set. Let S be the set of all things that are not self-identical. I don't know whether S is empty. But if s is in S then s is not the same as s. Let me take something like '2' to be in the complement of S, and on the good days, myself to be in that complement. (me and two are respectively self identical). But that is me 'taking' something to be the case, and why don't I take the rule defined by S to apply to most everything? That's like asking 'why don't I take 2 to be distinct from itself?' Why would you ask that? I mean, if you think of the propositions representing or mental states as either true or false but tensed according to the time of their occurrence--e.g. 'I am wearing a white shirt' is true now and not later, so the true proposition, roughly, would be 'I am wearing a white shirt at t distance in time from now'. One way to explain how this view of tensed facts enables my being distinct from myself is that tomorrow I will be in a different relation to the fact that now I am wearing a white shirt. The different relation is a different property, so I am different than I was. Another way to think of myself as not self-identical is to think that every experience has a cause and thus and effect, and part of that effect is on me. Then effects are changes of properties…In any case, I am just elaborating on a reaction to text as I read it.\

keda wrote:
Sorry, I meant about the last sentence. Why am I just talking about a new sense? In any case you seem to have defined "sense" as "source of information about reality". If this is the case then certainly our disagreement about whether "math is a priori synthetic or not" is at least semantic.

It is of course semantic, if you and monkey differ as to what ‘sense’ means, then you have a semantic difference. One word’s use affects the use of all others—so it is not a small difference.
keda wrote:
According to Kant, senses are only a specific kind of way our knowledge can immediately relate to objects, namely a passive way i.e. through being affected by them.
(perceiving, possibly against my will—hence ‘incontrovertable’).
keda wrote:
One will produce a cold sensation while the other a hot sensation. Neither is wrong, because they do not represent the temperature of the water, but how we are affected by it. Now given that a posteriori/a priori distinction is based on the definition of sense, it shouldn't be surprising that we are in disagreement if you use a different definition of "sense", but this may just be a disagreement in semantics.

keda, do you think that sense is of two kinds, a posteriori (empirical), and a priori (mental)? I think you might use the word very differently but it is still possible that your different uses are indicative of different philosophical opinions.

Sorry about the format but my hands are tired. I’m not entirely clear what either of your views are either so I am just trying to discuss. It might be that your semantic difference about the way to use ‘sense’ is not a significant difference given a pragmatic framework. The pragmatic framework allows your having greatly disparaging uses of 'sense' yet explains the general distinction economically.



Edited by jtoma on 07/18/09 - 05:34 PM
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Posted 07/16/09 - 02:42 PM:
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#66
Death Monkey wrote:

This is incorrect. As I already explained, your attempt at a counter-example fails, because your so-called "definition" does not just specify what a particular set is, but also makes a synthetic claim.

First off this is not something you've said before. Second, my attempt is merely to show that specification is not sufficient to make a definition. S = {my cat} is not a defintion, but it is a specification. It is a counter-example to the claim that specifications are definitions. It seems as if you think I'm trying to provide a definition, but that was not the case. Third, how can I not just specify my cat being the only member of the set, without making a singular judgment? I cannot, it is intrinsic to the specification, not something that I added to it. Thus, it is a specification of a set that is not a definition.


And as I have already explained, this same criticizm is not applicable to the definition of the natural numbers, because the "singular judgements" involved there are not synthetic claims.

First, this is not something you've said before either. Second it was a criticism not leveled to the definition of natural numbers, but a reason provided to nonsensicality of a claim. I suggest you go back and actually read what was said because it seems you have lost track of the trail of argument, to such a degree you can't even remember what you've said yourself.

As I already pointed out, you are making an invalid generalization from the fact that some singular judgements are synthetic, to saying that all of the must be.

This is a strawman. I never made such a generalization. Something which seems to have been ignored is an explanation I provided in #48, I demonstrated why singular judgments are synthetic:
keda wrote:

"my cat is an animal" is synthetic because it is a complex of judgments one of which is "this is a cat". Even if my cat cannot be a non animal, it is a synthetic judgment, because the negation is not a contradiction, since only one of the judgments have to be false to falsify the whole statement, and if there is no cat, the statement is false. The same goes for "0 is a natural number", because if 0 doesn't exist, the statement is false.

As my logic teacher once said, if a system of logic somehow is able to demonstrate the existence of something, then there is something seriously wrong with it.

Numbers have characteristics that can be used to describe things, obviously. The natural numbers have ordering characteristics that can be used for counting physical objects, as an example. But no physical objects need exist for them to have those ordering properties. They have them by definition. The fact that we can use numbers to count objects is not a fact about numbers. It is a fact about a relationship between numbers and physical objects. That this relationship obtains is a synthetic fact, but the definition of the natural numbers in no way asserts nor requires that such a relationship exist.

What exactly is this relationship between numbrers and physical objects, and how would you define for instance 0? How does 0 relate to physical objects? Does it relate like "cat" can relate, namely that we can say this object is a 0, like this object is a cat?

It is not the same sentence. Whether or not it is the same statement depends on what that sentence is interpreted to mean. I have just explained what I interpret the sentence to mean.

There's only one problem, what does the underlined sentence mean? Does it mean something else, or is it like GNU stands for GNU is Not Unix?

As I already stated, if you interpret the sentence "5 + 7 = 12" to mean something other than that, then you need to explain what you interpret it to mean. I am fairly certain that what you interpret it to mean is not a purely mathematical statement at all, but instead a statement about a relationship between mathematics and reality

Mathematics are statements about the way reality must be percieved.

Aside from the fact that this point has no relevance to the particular case at hand, you are quibbling about semantics here. The set of predictions made by two such theories is not the same set.

The case at hand is not that it is the same set, but that one is a subset of the other, so it is a semantic quibbling on your part.

They are statements about what follows from a specified (or implied) set of axioms.

This just seems to me like sweeping under the rug the question as to whether those things that follow, likewise the axioms themselves are analytic or synthetic.

Irrelevant. There is still no a priori garauntee that the statement will hold. The only reason we even expect it to hold, is because we have observed that it does

Then, I would expect you could come up with a different example of a possible explanation why 5kg+7kg=12kg isn't true, because clearly the one you first provided would prove that 5kg+7kg=12kg is false by examples of nuclear fission.

. For that matter, if we had not made such observations, it never would have occurred to us to invent the concept of "mass" in the first place. The very claim that there is such a thing as "mass", is a posteriori.

But the statement 5kg+7kg=12kg does not say there is mass. It says that if you have a mass of 5kg and a mass of 7kg the sum of their masses is 12kg. Likewise we can make a priori analytic judments regarding the concept of mass, despite that we aquired this concepts through observation, we can make a priori synthetic judgments regarding it, because it doesn't depend on the existence of mass or anything else of empirical nature.

The disagreement is not just about semantics. Even if I accept your definition of what constitutes a sense, I still cannot agree that judgements about specific relationships between mathematics and reality can be made without reference to sensory information. Introspection alone cannot tell you anything about the world beyond your mind.

Somehow, I'd argue you've just done that yourself i.e. tell me something about the world beyond your mind through introspection i.e. that it can only be known through them. This certainly is an a priori synthetic truth. If on the contrary, is only possible to access the mind through itself, the mind would have no access to the world, and we would have no sensations.

Edited by keda on 07/16/09 - 02:47 PM

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Posted 07/17/09 - 04:28 AM:
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#67
keda,

This is incorrect. As I already explained, your attempt at a counter-example fails, because your so-called "definition" does not just specify what a particular set is, but also makes a synthetic claim.

First off this is not something you've said before.

Yes, it is. In post 49 I said that what you were giving was an example of an attempt at a definition which also also includes the assumption that a synthetic proposition is true. So it is not just a definition. In is a claim, plus a definition.

Second, my attempt is merely to show that specification is not sufficient to make a definition. S = {my cat} is not a defintion, but it is a specification.

It is a definition. It defines what you mean by the symbol "S". It is just not only a definition, because it also includes assumptions about synthetic propositions.

It is a counter-example to the claim that specifications are definitions.

I did not claim that specifications are definitions. I claimed that a definition must specify what the term being defined is being defined to refer to. That's not the same thing.

It seems as if you think I'm trying to provide a definition, but that was not the case. Third, how can I not just specify my cat being the only member of the set, without making a singular judgment? I cannot, it is intrinsic to the specification, not something that I added to it. Thus, it is a specification of a set that is not a definition.

No, it is still a definition. As I said, it is not just a definition. It is more than just a definition. The fact that some concepts cannot be defined without making implicit assumptions about synthetic judgements just reflects the fact that some concepts are about the real world. It does not, in any way, support the claim that any singular judgement must necessarily be synthetic.

And as I have already explained, this same criticizm is not applicable to the definition of the natural numbers, because the "singular judgements" involved there are not synthetic claims.

First, this is not something you've said before either.

Yes, I did. Also in post 49.

"my cat is an animal" is synthetic because it is a complex of judgments one of which is "this is a cat". Even if my cat cannot be a non animal, it is a synthetic judgment, because the negation is not a contradiction, since only one of the judgments have to be false to falsify the whole statement, and if there is no cat, the statement is false. The same goes for "0 is a natural number", because if 0 doesn't exist, the statement is false.

As my logic teacher once said, if a system of logic somehow is able to demonstrate the existence of something, then there is something seriously wrong with it.

Your logic teacher is absolutely correct, as long as he/she means "existence" in the sense of being part of reality. But as I have repeatedly pointed out, the statement "0 is a natural number" does not require that 0 exist in this sense, as the statement "my cat is an animal" does. So your argument utterly fails. It is not logically possible for the statement "0 is a natural number" to be false. The argument that "it is logically possible for the statement to be false because, if 0 doesn't exist, the statement is false", fails, because the truth of the statement does not depend on 0 existing in any sense for which it is logically possible for it to not exist.

What exactly is this relationship between numbrers and physical objects,

I don't understand the question. There are many relationships between various number systems and physical objects. Every time we use mathematics to model reality, we are theorizing about such relationships.

and how would you define for instance 0?

I define it mathematically, depending on which formal system I am refering to.

How does 0 relate to physical objects? Does it relate like "cat" can relate, namely that we can say this object is a 0, like this object is a cat?

Of course not. It makes absolutely no sense to say that an object is a 0. That is why it is nonsensical to try to talk about numbers being "real". There is no object that is a number. That is also why it is absurd to try to assurt that a mathematical statement would be false if the numbers refered to in the statement were not "real". They are not real, so by your reasoning, all mathematical statements would have to be false, which is ridiculous.

There's only one problem, what does the underlined sentence mean? Does it mean something else, or is it like GNU stands for GNU is Not Unix?

The underlined sentence is ambiguous. In order for it to mean anything, additional clarification must be provided. This clarification can be explicit, as it was when I expanded in into "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12", or it can be implied by the context.

One of the points that I have been trying to make is that when the sentence appears without any supporting clarification or context, that I would interpret the context to be that it is intended as a pure mathematical statement, in which case the "according to the axioms of arithmetic" part is implied. The point being that if it is not your intention for the sentence to be interpreted this way, then you need to provide the clarification for how you do intend it to be interpreted.

As I already stated, if you interpret the sentence "5 + 7 = 12" to mean something other than that, then you need to explain what you interpret it to mean. I am fairly certain that what you interpret it to mean is not a purely mathematical statement at all, but instead a statement about a relationship between mathematics and reality

Mathematics are statements about the way reality must be percieved.

Then I was correct. You clearly mean something completely different by the term "mathematics" than I do. In fact, I am not even sure what you mean by it. Why must reality be percieved in some particular way? All we know about how reality is percieved, we have inferred from our observations of it. I cannot see any justification for saying that it must be percieved in any particular way, and I certainly do not see what any of that has to do with mathematics.

They are statements about what follows from a specified (or implied) set of axioms.

This just seems to me like sweeping under the rug the question as to whether those things that follow, likewise the axioms themselves are analytic or synthetic.

They are analytic, because the set of axioms is self-referential.

In other words, take the axioms of set theory. Each of those axioms is essentially a statement of the form "in set theory, it is true that...". Likewise, set theory is then defined to be that collection of axioms. It is thus a completely self-contained formal system, which does not make any claims about, or even references to, anything real.

Then, I would expect you could come up with a different example of a possible explanation why 5kg+7kg=12kg isn't true, because clearly the one you first provided would prove that 5kg+7kg=12kg is false by examples of nuclear fission.

Actually, that's not true since electromagnetic and kinetic energy both have mass. As far as we know, mass really is conserved under all known interactions. But that's just the point. This is as far as we know. Our only justification for this is our observations. We have no a priori justification for thinking that mass should be conserved under any circumstances, much less all of them.

For that matter, if we had not made such observations, it never would have occurred to us to invent the concept of "mass" in the first place. The very claim that there is such a thing as "mass", is a posteriori.

But the statement 5kg+7kg=12kg does not say there is mass. It says that if you have a mass of 5kg and a mass of 7kg the sum of their masses is 12kg. Likewise we can make a priori analytic judments regarding the concept of mass, despite that we aquired this concepts through observation, we can make a priori synthetic judgments regarding it, because it doesn't depend on the existence of mass or anything else of empirical nature.

You can't make any a priori synthetic judgements about it, because your only source of information about how mass works in the real world is your observations.

The disagreement is not just about semantics. Even if I accept your definition of what constitutes a sense, I still cannot agree that judgements about specific relationships between mathematics and reality can be made without reference to sensory information. Introspection alone cannot tell you anything about the world beyond your mind.

Somehow, I'd argue you've just done that yourself i.e. tell me something about the world beyond your mind through introspection i.e. that it can only be known through them.

Nope. That is not an example of me telling you anything about the world outside of my mind. It is an example of me telling you about what I can know about the world outside of my mind. Knowing is a mental process. So in fact, I am just telling you something about my mind.

This certainly is an a priori synthetic truth. If on the contrary, is only possible to access the mind through itself, the mind would have no access to the world, and we would have no sensations.

Exactly. The only access the mind has to the rest of the world is through conventional sensory input (meaning excluding your sense of awareness of your own thoughts as a "sense"). This is exactly why you cannot draw any conclusions about the relationship between things like euclidean geometry and the nature of space, without making reference to sensory information. Or why you cannot draw any conclusions about masses combining according to the rules of arithmetic, without making reference to sensory information. And so on. You are talking about relationships between mathematics and something outside of your mind. To make such judgements, you need information about those outside things. The only source of that information is sensory input.


DM


Edited by Death Monkey on 07/17/09 - 04:34 AM

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keda
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Posted 07/17/09 - 10:17 AM:
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#68
Death Monkey wrote:

Yes, it is. In post 49 I said that what you were giving was an example of an attempt at a definition which also also includes the assumption that a synthetic proposition is true. So it is not just a definition. In is a claim, plus a definition.

Let P = "your attempt at a counter-example fails"
Let Q = "your so-called "definition" does not just specify what a particular set is, but also makes a synthetic claim."
In #49 I can only find Q, not P.
In #54 I can only find P
In #64 The first time you you say P=>Q.

It is a definition. It defines what you mean by the symbol "S". It is just not only a definition, because it also includes assumptions about synthetic propositions.

You said "Correct" when I said it wasn't a definition. Did you change your mind?

I did not claim that specifications are definitions.

So you do now admit that your reason is insufficient? I'm refering to this one:

The definition of a set can, and indeed must, specify which elements are instantiated in that set. To say that this is not a definition is nonsensical, because it is nothing more than specifying what the set is.

Question: Why is it nonsensical to say it isn't a defintion?
Answer: Because it specifies what the set is.
The answer is insufficient to answer the question, if you can specify a set without it being a definition. I provided a counterexample showing that you can specify a set without it being a definition. Therefore the answer is insufficient to answer the question.

The fact that some concepts cannot be defined without making implicit assumptions about synthetic judgements just reflects the fact that some concepts are about the real world.

They are not concepts in Kant's sense. According to Kant concepts are universals and cannot therefore make direct references to objects such as my cat, or 0.

Your logic teacher is absolutely correct, as long as he/she means "existence" in the sense of being part of reality. But as I have repeatedly pointed out, the statement "0 is a natural number" does not require that 0 exist in this sense, as the statement "my cat is an animal" does.

He did not make such a distinction. In fact I don't remember anyone ever making such a distinction except you.

I don't understand the question. There are many relationships between various number systems and physical objects. Every time we use mathematics to model reality, we are theorizing about such relationships.

Can you give an example?

I define it mathematically, depending on which formal system I am refering to.

How do you define it in Peano artithemtics?

Of course not. It makes absolutely no sense to say that an object is a 0.

If so, then 0 is not a concept, at least not in the Kantian sense. If something is a concept e.g. "cat" then you should be able to say "a cat".

They are not real, so by your reasoning, all mathematical statements would have to be false, which is ridiculous.

Not by my reasoning, since I do not assume they are not real.

The underlined sentence is ambiguous. In order for it to mean anything, additional clarification must be provided. This clarification can be explicit, as it was when I expanded in into "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12", or it can be implied by the context.

You said this:

Likewise, when you say "5 + 7 = 12", unless you specify some units or specific context, I would interpret this to be saying "according to the axioms of arithmetic, 5 + 7 = 12

I suggest this is no more clarifying of the underlined than of what G is in interpreting GNU to mean GNU is not Unix. You end up running in circles or G will remain undefined and your interpretation is incomplete. In your case:

according to the axioms of arithmetic, according to the axioms of arithmetic, according to the axioms of arithmetic, ....

or
according to the axioms of arithmetic, "5 + 7 = 12"
but "5 + 7 = 12" is left uninterpreted.


They are analytic, because the set of axioms is self-referential.

In other words, take the axioms of set theory. Each of those axioms is essentially a statement of the form "in set theory, it is true that...".

In set theory it is true that X, but what is X? Also "In set theory it is true.."? It would not be possible to interpret such no more than GNU can be intepreted in the way I mentioned. It is certainly not analytical in Kant's sense.

It is thus a completely self-contained formal system, which does not make any claims about, or even references to, anything real.

If so we can throw in the garbage can because it is worthless. Arithmetics isn't worthless because it isn't selfcontained but refers to reality.

We have no a priori justification for thinking that mass should be conserved under any circumstances, much less all of them.

That is not the point. You have defined the terms in such a way that 5kg+7kg=12kg can be true only a posteriori. This is fine, but this goes beyond counting to describe a physical process, which isn't what one normally would call a mathematical statement. Normally when it is said that 5kg+7kg=12kg, it is meant that the sum of masses of anything with the mass of 5kg and anything with the mass of 7kg, is 12kg. This does not describe a physical process, but merely of counting together 5kg and 7kg.

For that matter, if we had not made such observations, it never would have occurred to us to invent the concept of "mass" in the first place. The very claim that there is such a thing as "mass", is a posteriori.

I have already addressed this issue.

You can't make any a priori synthetic judgements about it, because your only source of information about how mass works in the real world is your observations.

This is irrelevant, because according to my interpretation, the mass is freezed in its representation during the calculation, so however mass works, it doesn't do it in my representation of it during calculation. You can think of this calculation as operating on sets. You have two sets, each containing elements of each 1kg. One contains 5 of them while the other 7. Now even if the masses would alter while counting, you are not refering to the altering masses but to the masses in the sets which refer to the masses at whatever particular time they exist in. When you do this, no sense input can prove 5kg+7kg=12kg is wrong. We can generalize this for any units, not just kg, and thus we get the proposition 5+7=12 which is to say 5 of any unit and 7 of that unit counted together is 12 of that unit.



Nope. That is not an example of me telling you anything about the world outside of my mind. It is an example of me telling you about what I can know about the world outside of my mind. Knowing is a mental process. So in fact, I am just telling you something about my mind.

Knowing is a relation between the mind and the world, so it is also say something about the world, specifically how it is known. Saying what you can know about the world is an a priori synthetic claim i.e. the following is a genuinely true a priori synthetic claim:

Exactly. The only access the mind has to the rest of the world is through conventional sensory input (meaning excluding your sense of awareness of your own thoughts as a "sense").

You know this through introspection by finding out what means you have to access the world, and you quite soon discover the senses are the only means to do this.

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Posted 07/17/09 - 10:56 AM:
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#69
keda wrote:
I do not assume [that mathematical statements] are not real. (...) Arithmetics isn't worthless because it isn't selfcontained but refers to reality. (...) [The way Death Monkey defines '5+7=12'] goes beyond counting to describe a physical process, which isn't what one normally would call a mathematical statement. (...) Now even if the masses would alter while counting, you are not refering to the altering masses but to the masses in the sets which refer to the masses at whatever particular time they exist in.


Tidying:
1) Mathematical statements are real.
2) Mathematical statements refer to reality.
3) A statement defined to describe a physical process is not mathematical.
4) Counting can be represented by mathematical statements. (assumed)
5) The elements in a mathematical statement refer to sets or their members.
6) Sets or their members refer to physical masses.

(3) is in response to Death Monkey. (4-6) represent the last quoted sentence. Have I represented this aspect of your projected battle position fairly?

keda wrote:
the following is a genuinely true a priori synthetic claim: 'The only access the mind has to the rest of the world is through conventional sensory input'.


I mean, I think there could be empirical evidence that someone who thinks that his mind has access to the world via something other than sensory input does not have a better grasp of the world than someone who believes their only inputs are sensory. If so, then this evidence would be for an a posteriori aspect of the allegedly a priori synthetic claim.



Edited by jtoma on 07/17/09 - 11:05 AM
keda
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Posted 07/17/09 - 11:44 AM:
quote post
#70
jtoma wrote:


Tidying:
1) Mathematical statements are real.
2) Mathematical statements refer to reality.
3) A statement defined to describe a physical process is not mathematical.
4) Counting can be represented by mathematical statements. (assumed)
5) The elements in a mathematical statement refer to sets or their members.
6) Sets or their members refer to physical masses.

(3) is in response to Death Monkey. (4-6) represent the last quoted sentence. Have I represented this aspect of your projected battle position fairly?

Besides 1 and 6, I would say yes. Regarding 1, I was just saying that I'm not making an assumption he does. In fact I don't even know what is meant by a "real" statement. 2 is obviously true, because we use mathematical statements when counting real objects, so even though the reference is indirect, it is still a reference i.e. there are real examples of say the sum of 5 apples and 2 apples is 7 apples. Yet this is not an empirical truth, but a priori, because in counting we do not base it on anything empirical, but we always arrive at the same number 7 independent of experience. Regarding 6, in that particular example, the sets refered physical masses, but not all sets are like this.

I mean, I think there could be empirical evidence that someone who thinks that his mind has access to the world via something other than sensory input does not have a better grasp of the world than someone who believes their only inputs are sensory

There is another (logically possible) mode of knowing the world according to Kant, which is through intellectual intuition. Intuition (which is btw a badly translated to English from the German word Anschauung) is a cognition which refer directly to objects (similar to what you called identifiers) in a singular way i.e. it fixes a reference to a single object e.g. "This" in "This is a cat" fixes a specific object. When our mode of directly refering to single objects in cognition is called sensible, our knowledge of the object is caused by the existence of the object i.e. we passively recieve this object. The only other possible way of knowing objects is when the reverse causal relationship holds, namely our knowledge of the object causes the existence of the object i.e. the intellect creates the object of its knowledge. According to Kant this type of intuition can only be possessed by God, and we cannot know that exists, precisely because our mode of intuition is sensible, making it impossible to refer to such a being.

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